1. PRVC uses what flow pattern to deliver a breath?
B. Decelerating wave
2. A pre-use check on the Servo i contains which of the following:
D. All of the above are coned
3. How long will the Oxygen Breath button deliver 100% 02 on the Servo i?
d Until you turn it off
C. 2 minutes
4. T or F The Servo i has the option of compensating for circuit compressible volume (aka Tube Compliance Factor, TCF).
True
5. Which of the following is NOT controlled by a direct access knob on the user nterface in Volume Control mode:
C. Inspiratory Time
6. Which of the following statements is true about the servo i?
C. The ventilator can be used for transport with gas cylinder attached
1. T or F When transporting a patient on a transport ventilator it isn’t necessary to bring a self-inf1ating and mask of appropriate size.
False
2. T or F Transport ventilators have not been shown to provide a more constant minute ventilation than manual ventilation during short term in-house patient transports.
False
3. Contraindications to in-house transports include:
I. inability to provide adequate oxygenation
II. inability to maintain acceptable hemodynamic performance during transport
III. inability to adequately monitor patient cardiopulmonary status during transport,
IV. inability to maintain artificial airway control
D. I, II, III, IV
4. T or F Loss of the artificial airway is potential risk during in-hospital transport.
True
5. T or F In One major study regarding in-hospital transport, approximately 70% of the in-hospita] transports caused significant physiologic events lasting at least 5 minutes.
True
7. Which mode of ventilation on the Servo i adjusts the pressure support level automaticall for the spontaneously breathing patient?
A. Pressure Regulated Volume Control
8. T or F The Servo i has the option for monitoring the end-tidal PCO2 (PetCO2), and calculating the VCO2, which is half of the respiratory quotient.
True
9. T or F When the Automode is activated it will allow the patient to increase the inspiratory flow rate above the set flow rate, and shorten the Ti.
True
10. T or F The default flow pattern in all volume modes is a decelerating waveform.
False
1 T or F A patient-ventilator system check must include both the set and observed ventilator frequency, and the delivered tidal volume (either measured or calculated).
True
2. All of the following complications are possible if you disconnect a patient, except
B. Hyperventilation
3. When should you drain the ventilator tubing?
D. Before the ventilator check so the condensation doesn’t influence the readings and calculations.
4. What is the minimum time that it takes to begin to get an accurate plateau pressure?
a. 0.2 seconds
b 0.5 seconds
c. 2.0 seconds
d. 5.0 seconds
b 0.5 seconds
5. Which of the following are reasons to do a Patient-Ventilator Check?
I. Routine -Q 2-4 hrs.
II. Before each ABG.
III. With ventilator orders/settings changes.
IV. With any acute change in patient conditions
V. Upon arrival back from a transport to MRI for 2 hrs.
VI. Whenever the ventilator performance is questionable.
A. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
6. T or F Patient vital signs belong in the Nursing Notes, not in our Patient-Ventilator Check charting.
False
7. T or F An “error of omission” in charting can be grounds for malpractice.
True
8. T or F Spelling errors and math errors have no effect on the perception of our professionalism; the other Healthcare Workers understand the complexities and time constraints.
False
9. T or F Brief narrative regarding the clinical observations of the patient’s response to the current mechanical ventilator settings are not necessary, according to the AARC — CPG on Patient Ventilator Check.
False
10. All of the following are direct complications of suctioning except:
D. Mesenteric ischemia
11. All of the following are considered evidence of effective suctioning, except:
D. Decreased static compliance
12 T or F One of the stated reasons for doing a Patient-Ventilator Systems Check, according to the AARC CPG, is to verify and document that the ventilator alarms are appropriate and active
True
13. T or F According to the AARC CPG, an acceptable order for mechanical ventilation cannot be solely based on the desired blood gas results or ranges, leaving you to manipulate the settings to obtain the desired results.
False
14. T or F A to the AARC CPG, the volume monitoring devices should have an accuracy of within ± 10% of the set Vt, and the oxygen analyzer accuracy should be within ±3% official concentrations.
True
15. According to the AARC CPG, the routine patient-ventilator check should do which of the following?
I. Prevent untoward incidents
II. Warn of impending events
III. Assure proper ventilator functioning
IV. March the physician’s orders
C. I, II, III, IV
1. Acute dyspnea can be caused by which of the following ventilator setting
I. High pressure control setting
II. Setting the tidal volume low enough that the peak airway pressure is kept <30 cm H20
III. The assist-control back-up rate is set so that the patient must trigger the ventilator
IV. A long inspiratory time
D. All of the above can cause dyspnea
2. T or F Ventilator settings that “exercise” the patient can cause patient-ventilatoi dys-synchrony.
True
3. T or F The setting of the alarm threshold for the minute ventilation (ye) may be too high if it allows the patient to double their current Ve.
True
4. T or F Delirium can cause patient distress sufficient to cause adverse patient- ventilator interactions.
True
5. T or F Ventilator alarm systems will always alert you to a ventilator malfunction
False
6. T or F Malposition of the ET tube down the mainstem bronchus will always trigger a high peak airway alarm.
False
7. Slow ETT cuff leaks most often lead to which of the following problems?
I. Hypoventilation
II. Hypoxemia
III. Aspiration
IV. High peak airway pressures
A. I, II, III
8. T or F Assuming pulmonary compliance and resistance, and properly set alarms, a new onset of Kussmaul’s breathing while on a ventilator should cause a low minute ventilation alarm.
False
9. T or F One of the first steps in responding to high peak airway pressures alarms is to confirm that the artificial airway is not obstructed by trying to suction down the tube.
True
10. T or F The ventilator alarms will always alert us to increasing expiratory airway résistance due to HMEs.
False
11. Which of the following is a potential cause of dyspnea?
D. central apnea
12. T or F Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is always a good indicator that the patient is dyspnic.
False
13 T or F most patients’ can sense the magnitude of inspiratory effort necessai to take a breath, which becomes the basis for their sense of breathlessness.
True
14. T or F Dyspnea is an objective sign, which is easy to measure and treat.
False
15. T or F Our ‘hypoxic drive” is mediated through our central chemoreceptor
False
16. T or F Morphine is the drug of choice to treat a dyspnic emphysema patient
False
17. T or F Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is most often associated with congestive heart failure/pulmonary edema.
True
18. T or F in addition to history taking, it is often necessary to do both pulmonary function tests and a cardiac stress test to quantify the severity of dyspnea on exertion (DOE), particularly if the patient is seeking disability insurance.
True
19. T or F In patients with c pulmonary edema (CPE), dyspnea is seldom a major symptom at the time of presentation in ER.
False
20. T or F air across the patient’s face is totally ineffective for the reliel of dvsonea in COPD and cancer patients.
False
