RT 123 Midterm

  1. 1. PRVC uses what flow pattern to deliver a breath?

    B. Decelerating wave
  2. 2. A pre-use check on the Servo i contains which of the following:

    D. All of the above are coned
  3. 3. How long will the Oxygen Breath button deliver 100% 02 on the Servo i?

    d Until you turn it off
    C. 2 minutes
  4. 4. T or F The Servo i has the option of compensating for circuit compressible volume (aka Tube Compliance Factor, TCF).
  5. 5. Which of the following is NOT controlled by a direct access knob on the user nterface in Volume Control mode:

    C. Inspiratory Time
  6. 6. Which of the following statements is true about the servo i?

    C. The ventilator can be used for transport with gas cylinder attached
  7. 1. T or F When transporting a patient on a transport ventilator it isn’t necessary to bring a self-inf1ating and mask of appropriate size.
  8. 2. T or F Transport ventilators have not been shown to provide a more constant minute ventilation than manual ventilation during short term in-house patient transports.
  9. 3. Contraindications to in-house transports include:
    I. inability to provide adequate oxygenation
    II. inability to maintain acceptable hemodynamic performance during transport
    III. inability to adequately monitor patient cardiopulmonary status during transport,
    IV. inability to maintain artificial airway control

    D. I, II, III, IV
  10. 4. T or F Loss of the artificial airway is potential risk during in-hospital transport.
  11. 5. T or F In One major study regarding in-hospital transport, approximately 70% of the in-hospita] transports caused significant physiologic events lasting at least 5 minutes.
  12. 7. Which mode of ventilation on the Servo i adjusts the pressure support level automaticall for the spontaneously breathing patient?

    A. Pressure Regulated Volume Control
  13. 8. T or F The Servo i has the option for monitoring the end-tidal PCO2 (PetCO2), and calculating the VCO2, which is half of the respiratory quotient.
  14. 9. T or F When the Automode is activated it will allow the patient to increase the inspiratory flow rate above the set flow rate, and shorten the Ti.
  15. 10. T or F The default flow pattern in all volume modes is a decelerating waveform.
  16. 1 T or F A patient-ventilator system check must include both the set and observed ventilator frequency, and the delivered tidal volume (either measured or calculated).
  17. 2. All of the following complications are possible if you disconnect a patient, except

    B. Hyperventilation
  18. 3. When should you drain the ventilator tubing?

    D. Before the ventilator check so the condensation doesn’t influence the readings and calculations.
  19. 4. What is the minimum time that it takes to begin to get an accurate plateau pressure?
    a. 0.2 seconds
    b 0.5 seconds
    c. 2.0 seconds
    d. 5.0 seconds
    b 0.5 seconds
  20. 5. Which of the following are reasons to do a Patient-Ventilator Check?
    I. Routine -Q 2-4 hrs.
    II. Before each ABG.
    III. With ventilator orders/settings changes.
    IV. With any acute change in patient conditions
    V. Upon arrival back from a transport to MRI for 2 hrs.
    VI. Whenever the ventilator performance is questionable.

    A. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
  21. 6. T or F Patient vital signs belong in the Nursing Notes, not in our Patient-Ventilator Check charting.
  22. 7. T or F An “error of omission” in charting can be grounds for malpractice.
  23. 8. T or F Spelling errors and math errors have no effect on the perception of our professionalism; the other Healthcare Workers understand the complexities and time constraints.
  24. 9. T or F Brief narrative regarding the clinical observations of the patient’s response to the current mechanical ventilator settings are not necessary, according to the AARC — CPG on Patient Ventilator Check.
  25. 10. All of the following are direct complications of suctioning except:

    D. Mesenteric ischemia
  26. 11. All of the following are considered evidence of effective suctioning, except:

    D. Decreased static compliance
  27. 12 T or F One of the stated reasons for doing a Patient-Ventilator Systems Check, according to the AARC CPG, is to verify and document that the ventilator alarms are appropriate and active
  28. 13. T or F According to the AARC CPG, an acceptable order for mechanical ventilation cannot be solely based on the desired blood gas results or ranges, leaving you to manipulate the settings to obtain the desired results.
  29. 14. T or F A to the AARC CPG, the volume monitoring devices should have an accuracy of within ± 10% of the set Vt, and the oxygen analyzer accuracy should be within ±3% official concentrations.
  30. 15. According to the AARC CPG, the routine patient-ventilator check should do which of the following?
    I. Prevent untoward incidents
    II. Warn of impending events
    III. Assure proper ventilator functioning
    IV. March the physician’s orders

    C. I, II, III, IV
  31. 1. Acute dyspnea can be caused by which of the following ventilator setting
    I. High pressure control setting
    II. Setting the tidal volume low enough that the peak airway pressure is kept <30 cm H20
    III. The assist-control back-up rate is set so that the patient must trigger the ventilator
    IV. A long inspiratory time

    D. All of the above can cause dyspnea
  32. 2. T or F Ventilator settings that “exercise” the patient can cause patient-ventilatoi dys-synchrony.
  33. 3. T or F The setting of the alarm threshold for the minute ventilation (ye) may be too high if it allows the patient to double their current Ve.
  34. 4. T or F Delirium can cause patient distress sufficient to cause adverse patient- ventilator interactions.
  35. 5. T or F Ventilator alarm systems will always alert you to a ventilator malfunction
  36. 6. T or F Malposition of the ET tube down the mainstem bronchus will always trigger a high peak airway alarm.
  37. 7. Slow ETT cuff leaks most often lead to which of the following problems?
    I. Hypoventilation
    II. Hypoxemia
    III. Aspiration
    IV. High peak airway pressures

    A. I, II, III
  38. 8. T or F Assuming pulmonary compliance and resistance, and properly set alarms, a new onset of Kussmaul’s breathing while on a ventilator should cause a low minute ventilation alarm.
  39. 9. T or F One of the first steps in responding to high peak airway pressures alarms is to confirm that the artificial airway is not obstructed by trying to suction down the tube.
  40. 10. T or F The ventilator alarms will always alert us to increasing expiratory airway résistance due to HMEs.
  41. 11. Which of the following is a potential cause of dyspnea?

    D. central apnea
  42. 12. T or F Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is always a good indicator that the patient is dyspnic.
  43. 13 T or F most patients’ can sense the magnitude of inspiratory effort necessai to take a breath, which becomes the basis for their sense of breathlessness.
  44. 14. T or F Dyspnea is an objective sign, which is easy to measure and treat.
  45. 15. T or F Our ‘hypoxic drive” is mediated through our central chemoreceptor
  46. 16. T or F Morphine is the drug of choice to treat a dyspnic emphysema patient
  47. 17. T or F Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is most often associated with congestive heart failure/pulmonary edema.
  48. 18. T or F in addition to history taking, it is often necessary to do both pulmonary function tests and a cardiac stress test to quantify the severity of dyspnea on exertion (DOE), particularly if the patient is seeking disability insurance.
  49. 19. T or F In patients with c pulmonary edema (CPE), dyspnea is seldom a major symptom at the time of presentation in ER.
  50. 20. T or F air across the patient’s face is totally ineffective for the reliel of dvsonea in COPD and cancer patients.
Card Set
RT 123 Midterm
RT 123 Midterm