AVA 04.txt

683 When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to



4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.



10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.



30 SM, and be transponder equipped.

684 (Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area
when you pass which sign?



Top red.



Middle yellow.



Bottom yellow.

685 (Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical
area when short of which symbol?



Top red.



Middle yellow.



Bottom yellow.

686 To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should



Rely on body sensations.



Increase the breathing rate.



Rely on aircraft instrument indications.

687 Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?



Insufficient oxygen.



Excessive carbon monoxide.



Insufficient carbon dioxide.

688 To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should



Swallow or yawn.



Slow the breathing rate.



Increase the breathing rate.

689 Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?



Drowsiness.



Decreased breathing rate.



A sense of well-being.

690 Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?



A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.



An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.



Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

691 Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?



Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.



Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.



Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

692 Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as



Humidity decreases.



Altitude increases.



Oxygen demand increases.

693 Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?



At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures.



To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.



To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard
departure.

694 (Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at



DENAY intersection.



Glide slope intercept.



ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.

695 (Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is



11,000 feet MSL.



7,000 feet MSL.



9,000 feet MSL.

696 (Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed
approach point?



4.8 NM.



5.2 NM.



12.0 NM.

697 (Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM,
what MDA applies?



1,157 feet.



1,320 feet.



1,360 feet.

698 (Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope
interception is



2,365 feet MSL.



2,400 feet MSL.



3,000 feet MSL.

699 The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as
practical to ATC when



Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in
flight.



Requested to contact a new controlling facility.



Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

700 (Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A
procedure?



One VOR receiver.



One VOR receiver and DME.



Two VOR receivers and DME.

701 Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are



Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.



To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.



Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.

702 While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be
maintained until



Reaching the FAF.



Advised to begin descent.



Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.

703 (Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN
represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of



Denver VORTAC.



Dymon outer marker.



Cruup I-AQD DME fix.

704 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?



A procedure turn is not authorized.



Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.



Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

705 A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when



Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.



Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.



Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.

706 On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or
continue the approach unless the



Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.



Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.



Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,

can be made.

707 Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the



Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.



Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used. 










Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

708 (Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the
glide slope becomes inoperative?



1,420 feet.



1,340 feet.



1,121 feet.

709 For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport
on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a



Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.



Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.



Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.

710 For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on
an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the
following weather minimums.



Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.



Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.



Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.

711 (Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which
extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of



Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.



8,000 feet MSL.



2,100 feet AGL.

712 VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC.



True, they are both the same



False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.



False, but they are correlated

713 Hypoxia is the result of:



The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream



The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen



All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic

714 A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:



1.0 DME



2.0 DME to either side of the arc



0.0. (No deviations are allowed)

715 If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:



6.0 Nm from the VOR



4.5 Nm from the VOR



3.0 Nm from the VOR

716 TERPs are a US standard used for:



All ICAO special charts



IFR departure design criteria


. Non Jeppesen stars

717 When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:



Continue flying the DP as published



Return for a landing



Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included

718 Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:



True, except as published on STARs



False, every airport is different



True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs

719 Departure Procedures must:



Be flown if available for that airport



Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan



Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC

720 On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean:



V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight



V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation



V stands or “Victor Collins” whom in 1935 invented the airways between VORs and 344 is the airway

allocation

721 MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:



Navigation signal



Both navigation and communications



1.500 ground clearance around mountains

722 When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:



Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side



Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway



Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line

723 1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:



MVA, MEA and MOCA



MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA



Neither, as the radio altimeter is never activated (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in mountainous

terrain

724 In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of
navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:



A Hi or Lo enroute chart



A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used



A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation

725 When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed
off from TWR:



Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code



Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code



Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code

726 When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:



Write a maintenance report at your next stop



Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements



Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing

727 Position reports when required should include:



Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point



Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you

are



Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any

728 You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:



Report leaving present altitude.



Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times



Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic

729 You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should:



Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles



If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time



Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt.

730 In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.



You will fly two complete racetrack patterns



You will fly three complete racetrack patterns



The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.

731 If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should:



Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts



Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category



Maintain the speed up so as to hold at the fastest speed possible to be the first to leave the fix and

expedite ATC

732 When is an IFR flight plan required?



When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.



In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone
airspace.



In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

733 Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?



Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.



Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.



Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

734 To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate
ATC clearance prior to



Entering controlled airspace.



Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.



Takeoff.

735 To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received
prior to



Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.



Entering weather conditions in any airspace.



Entering controlled airspace.

736 When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?



When operating in the Class E airspace.



When operating in the Class A airspace.



When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

737 When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
flight plan and receive a clearance before



Takeoff.



Entering IFR conditions.



Entering Class E airspace.

738 No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan



And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.



Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.



And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

739 During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing
has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before
through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet
the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,



Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.



Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.



And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

740 What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
airport of intended landing,



And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.



Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.



Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

741 What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a
VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR
flight plan?



800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.



800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.



1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and

landing under basic VFR.

742 What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision
approach procedure?



400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.



600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.



800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

743 When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA
for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?



Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the
minimum visibility for the approach.



600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.



Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility

for the approach.

744 What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when
the airport has no approved IAP?



The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.



The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles,

respectively.



The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic

VFR.

745 When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at
the alternate?



600-1 if the airport has an ILS.



Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.



The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

746 If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should
be the



Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.



Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.



Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

747 When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?



Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).



The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.



The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

748 An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current
weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will



Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.



Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.



Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

749 Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix
by



The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.



An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.



Direct route only.

750 The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be
obtained from



The ATIS broadcast.



The FSS.



Notices to Airmen (Class II).

751 What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?



The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.



The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.



The point of first intended landing.

752 For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an
alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?



Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.



Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.


Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

753 For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at
an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in
order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?



600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.



600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.



800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

754 For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta
Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=



No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour
before to 1 hour after the ETA.



No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles,
respectively.



Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

755 For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to
avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?



From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.



From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.



From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

756 What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?



Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.



Advise departure control upon initial contact.



Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

757 Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the
designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?



MOCA.



MRA.



MCA.

758 ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within



22 NM of a VOR.



25 NM of a VOR.



30 NM of a VOR.

759 For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe
the “route of flight” should be



40 NM apart.



70 NM apart.



80 NM apart.

760 At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?



Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.



When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.



When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

761 MEA is an altitude which assures

Obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME
mileage.



A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.



Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

762 To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above
14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?



230 knots.



265 knots.



200 knots.

763 What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector
Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?



1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.



1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.



500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.

764 When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?



When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established after completing the turn to
the outbound heading.



When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix,
whichever occurs first.



When abeam the holding fix.

765 (Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?



It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.



The localizer has an additional navigation function.



GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams

Memorial.

766 To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated
airspeed above 14,000 feet?



220 knots.



265 knots.



200 knots.

767 What is the definition of MEA?



The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage.



The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational
signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.



An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal
coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

768 To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum
indicated airspeed a pilot should use?



230 knots.



200 knots.



210 knots.

769 What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?





a. Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.


Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.



Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

770 Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only



12 NM.



22 NM.



25 NM.

771 Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?



IFR Planning Chart.



IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.



IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.

772 When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better
established on course, the additional circuits can be made



At pilot’s discretion.



Only in an emergency.



Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.

773 (Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude
crossing Gymme intersection is



6,400 feet.



6,500 feet.



7,000 feet.

774 Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the
designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?



MRA.



MCA.



MOCA.

775 Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and
MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)



Adequate navigation signals.



Adequate communications.



1,000-foot obstacle clearance.

776 If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher
minimum applies?



The MEA at which the fix is approached.



The MRA at which the fix is approached.



The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

777 (Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS
in the Lake Charles area?



122.1, 126.4.



123.6, 122.65.



122.2, 122.3.

778 How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?



All fixes that are labeled IAF.



Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix.



The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.

779 (Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport
elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?



15 feet.



18 feet.



22 feet.

780 (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the
ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?



3,000 feet MSL.



1,800 feet MSL.



1,690 feet MSL.

781 When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the
parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?



At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.



As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.



At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.

782 Aircraft approach categories are based on



Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.



1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.



1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

783 (Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the
flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet



Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER.



Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart.



Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

784 If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed
approach should be initiated upon



Arrival at the DH on the glide slope.



Arrival at the middle marker.



Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

785 (Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport
Approach Chart?



It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.



It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.



It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and

290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.

786 (Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when
using the localizer frequency?



Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.



Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.



Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

787 (Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach
for a landing on RWY 27?



A



B



C

788 Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?



To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.



Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan.



When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

789 (Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from
2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?



200 feet per minute.



400 feet per minute.



600 feet per minute.

790 (Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight
should



Land straight in on runway 31.



Comply with straight-in landing minimums.



Begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

791 (Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a
minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of



Denver VORTAC.



Gandi outer marker.



Denver/Stapleton International Airport.

792 Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be
executed within



The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.



A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.



10 knots of the specified holding speed.

793 Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is
maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?



Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.



Use Category B minim ums.



Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

794 When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater
than



180 knots IAS.



200 knots IAS.



250 knots IAS.

795 What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular
airport indicate?



Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more
than two engines.



Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.



Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

796 When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?



On tower frequency.



On approach control frequency.



One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

797 When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?


A straight-in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle
to land on the runway.



The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.



A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal

approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

798 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?



A procedure turn is not authorized.



Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.



Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

799 (Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for
the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)



425 feet per minute.



530 feet per minute.



635 feet per minute.

800 Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?



Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.



Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route
facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.



Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.

801 (Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?



70 feet MSL.



54 feet MSL.



46 feet MSL.

802 (Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?



363 feet MSL.



365 feet MSL.



396 feet MSL.

803 What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts,
represent?



The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.



The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.



The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

804 (Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of
descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?



415 feet per minute.



480 feet per minute.



555 feet per minute.

805 (Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent
will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?



1,200 fpm.



500 fpm.



800 fpm.

806 What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?


You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.



You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land

in IFR conditions.



You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the

airport in VFR conditions.

807 Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP
TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?



As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.



Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the

final approach fix.



After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.

808 (Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the
procedure turn at LABER?



4 DME miles from LABER.



10 DME miles from the MAP.



12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

809 (Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?



5,957 feet.



7,000 feet.



7,900 feet.

810 If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the
pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?



As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.



As an RVR of 2,400 feet.



As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

811 (Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME
RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?



Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.



When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.



After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

812 Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?



Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR
separation is provided on the adjacent runway.



Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive
aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.



Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but
will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

813 The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot
be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?



RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground
visibility.



RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.



RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

814 If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be
used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.


Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning
maneuver.



Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.



Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.

815 (Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at
7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX.
Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to



completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.



CREAK outbound.



intercepting the glide slope.

816 (Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed
the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet
commence?



As soon as intercepting LOC inbound.



Immediately.



Only at the point authorized by ATC.

817 If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH,
the pilot is



Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.



Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.



Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.