-
229 The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts) above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI:
230
240
265
C
-
230 Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep his or her shoulders harness fastened
during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft
while the crewmembers are at their station unless he or she is unable to perform requires duties
during takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable to perform required duties
C
-
231 En caso de una bomba abordo que se requiera de una acción inmediata se deberá utilizar el código:
Bravo Romeo
Bravo Wiskey
Bravo Tango
B
-
232 In class A airspace, the following flights are permitted:
VFR only
IFR only
Special VFR only
B
-
233 The difference between MDA and DA is:
MDA is for Precision approach and DA is for non Precision approach
MDA is Minimum departure altitude and DA is decision altitude
MDA is for non precision approach and DA is for precision approach
C
-
234 For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, ATC classifies aircraft as:
Heavy, large and small
A, B, C,D
Number of engines
A
-
235 The MINIMUM altitude to intercept the glide slope path on a precision approach is:
Minimum altitude leaving VOR in final approach
Glide Slope intercept altitude
DA value for this procedure
B
-
236 The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is:
PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route altitude and the other do not
PUBLISHED is for IFR flights only and UNPUBLISHED is for VFR flights only
PUBLISHED is authorized route and UNPUBLISHED is non authorized route
A
-
237 EXPECTED APPROACH TIME means the time:
The flight is estimating arrive at the primary navigation aid
The flight is clear for approach
In case of communication failure, it is the time at which an approach must begin.
C
-
238 RADAR CONTACT is defined as:
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen on a radar display.
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a
radar display.
None of the above
B
-
239 Clearance limit is:
The point at which as aircraft is expected to reduce airspeed
The point until the aircraft is expected to maintain visual reference and keeps clear of clouds
The point at which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
C
-
240 THRESHOLD is defined as:
The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing
The beginning of that portion of the runway used for warm-up.
The beginning of that portion of the takeoff runway
A
-
241 If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the
groundspeed is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travle 450 NN?
112 kg
265 pounds
284 pounds
A
-
242 En una aproximación ADF la altura mínima de descenso es de:
500 pies
450 pies
350 pies
B
-
243 Los pilotos de transporte de línea y copilotos con licencia comercial de aviones deben realizar una
serie de proeficiencias y repasos al año para cumplir con los requisitos de la UAEAC, en cuanto a
simuladores de vuelo se refiere, el número de estos es de:
Dos veces al año
Tres veces al año
Cada 2 años
A
-
244 Como se interpreta si las luces PAPI se observan desde su avion totalmente blancas:
Voy en trayectoria .
Voy ligeramente alto.
Voy muy alto.
C
-
245 La UTA es un espacio aéreo:
Categoria A, con vuelos IFR y VMC.
Categoria A restringido a instrumentos.
Categoria B únicamente.
B
-
246 Cúal es la cantidad máxima de horas anuales que un piloto con licencia PCA, que vuela para una
empresa de servicio aereo regular y una aeronave de mas de 5700 KGS puede volar?
500 Horas
700 Horas
900 Horas
C
-
247 Se define como área de maniobras en un aeródromo a:
La utilizada o definida como área de vuelo para operación de aeronaves sujeta a restricciones o
limitaciones.
Todo tipo de aérea de movimiento en la cual se desplace una aeronave.
Parte del aeródromo que se utiliza para despegues, aterrizajes y rodaje de aeronaves excluyendo las
plataformas.
C
-
248 Se define como aerovía:
El área controlada por la torre de control
El área comprendida entre dos aeropuertos conformada por 2 radio ayudas y con un ancho de 12
Millas náuticas.
El área de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y equipada con ayudas para la navegación.
C
-
249 Se considera combustible básico para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para volar del aeropuerto de origen a destino.
El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más el alterno.
El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más extra.
A
-
250 Se considera combustible de reserva para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para volar y aterrizar en el aeropuerto alterno más lejano incluido en el plan de vuelo.
El suficiente para sostener por 30 minutos.
El suficiente para sostener por 45 minutos.
A
-
251 Se considera combustible mínimo para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino.
El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino mas reserva.
La suma de combustible básico + reserva + contingencia(si aplica) + sostenimiento.
C
-
252 El RAC comprende:
9 partes
11 partes
24 partes
C
-
253 El RAC se define como:
Reglamento del aire de Colombia.
Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia
Reglamento de Aviones Colombia
B
-
254 La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a:
Aeródromos e instalaciones
Personal Aeronáutico
Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves
C
-
255 La parte Séptima del RAC corresponde a:
Personal Aeronáutico
Normas de Aeronavegabilidad y Operación de Aeronaves
Régimen Sancionatorio
C
-
256 Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de transporte aéreo regular, este debe de haber
cumplido con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un período de:
12 meses
18 meses
24 meses
A
-
257 La palabra Notam se define como:
Notice to the Aircraft.
Notice to the Airman
Notice to the Air maintenance operator
B
-
258 El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves en Colombia según el RAC es de:
80 horas
90 horas
85 horas
B
-
259 Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ángulo de:
120° con respecto el eje longitudinal de la pista.
90° con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista.
c. 90° con respecto a la torre de control.
B
-
260 El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de:
El operador.
El tripulante
La Aeronáutica Civil
B
-
261 El tiempo máximo de servicio de un tripulante de cabina de mando para tripulación sencilla de
aeronaves de transporte aéreo regular es de:
12 horas
12:30 horas
14 horas
B
-
262 Espacio aéreo controlado visual por TWR:
ATZ
CTR
TMA
A
-
263 El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a:
Un controlador de tráfico aéreo
Un inspector de la UAEAC
Un inspector de la Fuerza Aérea Colombiana
B
-
264 La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una aeronave depende de:
La UAEAC
El piloto al mando
La empresa explotadora
B
-
265 El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de
todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una despresurización.
11.000 pies
10.000 pies
12.000 pies
B
-
266 De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de
los mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener:
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con
un motor inoperativo.
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con
un motor inoperativo.
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un
motor inoperativo.
C
-
267 La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de:
500 pies
1.000 pies
2.000 pies
B
-
268 Se define en una aproximación de precisión como DH (Decision Height) a:
La altura mínima en la cual una aeronave debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada en caso de no tener
contacto visual.
La altura mínima a la que puede descender una aeronave con el piloto automático enganchado.
Un punto geográfico exacto, que coincide con una altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no
tener contacto visual debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada.
C
-
269 De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave
si en los_____ días precedentes no se han efectuado _____ despegues y aterrizajes.
60y3
90y3
60y2
B
-
270 Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que:
El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser un vuelo VFR
El piloto sea responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR
El piloto asuma la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la efectué el ATS.
C
-
271 Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con:
Altitudes
Alturas
Niveles de vuelo
C
-
272 En una aproximación IFR, se denomina FAF (Final Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave:
Inicia la aproximación intermedia
Inicia la maniobra de aproximación frustrada
Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar
C
-
273 Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será un vuelo:
NO controlado
Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC
C
-
274 La legislación Aérea Colombiana se encuentra publicada en:
Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos
Código de comercio
AIP de Colombia
B
-
275 Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:
sígame
Aterrice aquí
Usted esta en peligro. Sígame
B
-
276 Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia de la que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de:
1 minuto
2 minutos
3 minutos
C
-
277 La expresión aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una aeronave en vuelo de:
Operación VIP presidencial
Ambulancia
Orden público
C
-
278 De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una aeronave podrá desviarse de una autorización emitida
por el ATC sí:
Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo.
Una situación de emergencia es declarada
a y b son correctas
C
-
279 Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situación de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad
de las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o
procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deberá pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes:
5 días
8 días
10 días
C
-
280 Para recobro de autonomía como Piloto Comercial de aviones después de un receso de 90 días, el
tripulante deberá efectuar_____ despegues y aterrizajes ante un instructor calificado, en el equipo que
desea recobrar autonomía.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
B
-
281 El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en Colombia es principal función de:
El ministerio de transporte
La UAEAC
La secretaría de transporte Aéreo de Colombia
A
-
282 Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave en Colombia, se deberá tener en posesión
siempre:
Licencia Expedida por la Aeronáutica Civil de Colombia y Certificado Medico
Certificado de Carencia de Estupefacientes y Certificado de antecedentes disciplinarios
a y b son correctas
A
-
283 Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra, las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una
colisión de acuerdo a los siguientes parámetros:
Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha
Ambas aeronaves viraran a la izquierda
La aeronave de mayor envergadura iniciara un ascenso y por consecuente la otra un descenso.
A
-
284 De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje
de una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel
inferior a la altitud mínima establecida de:
2.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno montañoso.
1.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno no montañoso.
a y b son correctos
C
-
285 Las condiciones mínimas de alcance visual en Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies serán de
8 km 5 millas
5 km 3 millas
8 millas 5 kms
A
-
286 Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a
la UAEAC en los siguientes:
5 días hábiles
8 días hábiles
10 días hábiles
A
-
287 La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es
de:
El piloto al mando
El técnico de mantenimiento
El explotador de la aeronave
A
-
288 La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de:
El piloto al mando
El copiloto
El técnico de mantenimiento
A
-
289 El reglamento del aire es parte de:
El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un operador
El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia
El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos
B
-
290 Se define como hora prevista de aproximación:
Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave que llega después de experimentar una demora,
abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximación, a fin de aterrizar
La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en su aeropuerto de destino
Ninguna de las anteriores
A
-
291 La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual:
100 pies
200 pies
250 pies
B
-
291 La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual:
100 pies
200 pies
250 pies
B
-
292 Se considera como aproximación de precisión:
ILS
VOR DME
Contacto radar
A
-
293 Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que:
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y volando IMC
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR
Todas las respuestas anteriores son ciertas
B
-
294 If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must:
Obey all instructions from ATC regardless
Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud
Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply.
C
-
295 When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may
instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply:
Say “Roger” to ATC without repeating your call sign or flight number again, once you know ATC
recognizes your voice
Simply click your mike when answering obvious things to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency
Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the
frequency even more.
C
-
296 You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at
least:
No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion
500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent
500 FPM
C
-
297 An IFR clearance must include the following:
a. Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route
Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as filed on a passenger carrying
Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code
C
-
298 You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any
instructions requiring verification:
True
False
As well as those containing wind direction and intensity
A
-
299 If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should:
Leave the hold at the EFC time
Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible
Stay on the hold until your EAT
A
-
300 You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2
way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct
route to fly you should:
Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished
Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery
before takeoff.
As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG
C
-
301 During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the
ELT should:
Tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED
Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON
Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for
no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour
C
-
302 Señalar lo que es cierto
El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador
El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL)
El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión
C
-
303 Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
B
-
304 For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.
B
-
305 What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
C
-
306 When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of
assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
C
-
307 For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or
VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
At the changeover points.
A
-
308 What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has
VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.
A
-
309 During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure).
The pilot should
Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
A
-
310 During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action
is appropriate?
Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
B
-
311 During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach
fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure.
Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete
the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the
approach.
B
-
312 Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at
a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
B
-
313 Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio
communications failure?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach
upon arrival.
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.
A
-
314 What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio
communications failure?
a. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned
altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least
1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of
clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
A
-
315 In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR
conditions the pilot should continue
By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
B
-
316 While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR
conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
VFR and land as soon as practicable.
VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.
A
-
317 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute
the published approach procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must
be reported to ATC.
B
-
318 What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb
to the assigned altitude?
Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000
foot level.
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per
minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet
below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
C
-
319 When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a
void time indicates that
ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off
by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
B
-
320 What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
B
-
321 Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar
environment.)
Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
B
-
322 On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE
DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO
FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT
NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
Departure control frequency.
Destination airport and route.
Requested enroute altitude.
B
-
323 When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given.
Any time an emergency occurs.
When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A
-
324 Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.
Contact and visual approaches.
DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.
C
-
325 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the
published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including
6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B
-
326 A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
A
-
327 While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.
What action must be taken?
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
A
-
328 An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment
B
-
329 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Maximum landing gear operating speed.
Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
A
-
330 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Never-exceed speed.
Maximum nose wheel extend speed.
B
-
331 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as
Speed for best rate of descent.
Speed for best angle of climb.
Speed for best rate of climb.
C
-
332 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the
airplane is controllable?
VS.
VS1.
VSO.
A
-
333 Define Calibrated Air Speed?
Normal operating speed.
Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error
Speed corrected by Warm climate.
B
-
334 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
Design flap speed.
Flap operating speed.
Maximum flap extended speed.
A
-
335 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified
configuration?
VS.
VS1.
VSO.
B
-
336 Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
The never-exceed speed.
The power-off stall speed.
The maneuvering speed.
C
-
337 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
B
-
338 To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
The current altimeter setting.
29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
The field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
B
-
339 What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn
coordinator
Is always electric, the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
Indicates bank angle only, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and
coordination.
C
-
340 What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other
gyroscopic instruments?
It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.
A
-
341 A Standard rate turn is :
a. A turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 Kts
(TAS in Kts / 3o) + 5
A turn at a rate of 3o / sec
C
-
342 Magnetic dip is responsible for:
Northerly turning errors only in the northern hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip
Nothing on a commercial transport category Aircraft equipped with EFIS
Errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses
A
-
343 Pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a high Performance aircraft:
Airspeed = pitot only, Altimeter = static only
Airspeed = pitot + static, Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = pitot + alternate Static
Airspeed = pitot + static ,Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = static only
C
-
344 At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed:
Is the same as the TAS
Is higher and so is the resultant ground speed
Remains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports
C
-
345 TAS is the actual speed your airplane moves through undisturbed air. As density altitude increases
your TAS:
Should remain the same regardless
Should increase about 2 Kts / 1.000 Ft increment
Should increase for a given TAS corrected for instrument and installation error
B
-
346 Pressure altitude is:
Displayed when the altimeter setting is corrected for temperature at sea level
Displayed when the altimeter setting is set on the QNH window
Displayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure
C
-
347 Density altitude is used for:
Only for flying altitudes below 18.000 Ft.
Calculating TAS with 29.92 set on the Alt.
Performance calculations with OAT charts
C
-
348 While on the ground with the correct altimeter setting your altimeter should read:
Within 100 Ft. for CAT I ILS approved airplanes
Within 20 Ft. of the other altimeter
Within 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation.
C
-
349 If on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you
should:
Continue the take off and report to Maintenance at next stop as you still have 1 reliable ASI available
Continue the takeoff and consult the MEL before writing out a Maintenance report
Reject the take off, return to the gate and report to Maintenance assuming all the delay consequences
C
-
350 Compass correction cards
Are not required on EFIS equipped aircraft
Are not required on transport category aircraft
Must be current and installed on all certified aircraft
C
-
351 Pitch instruments are:
Attitude, vertical speed and altimeter
Altimeter, airspeed and VSI
Attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI
B
-
352 When performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered
serviceable if it is within _______ of the published radial:
2o to either side
No deviations are allowed for IFR
4o to either side
C
-
353 If a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, the check:
Must be made by maintenance personnel with special equipment
Is not necessary for aircraft certified for CAT II ILS approaches
Can be made between 2 VOR ́S within the aircraft and the error must not exceed 4o
C
-
354 What information does a Mach meter present?
The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.
A
-
355 Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
A
-
356 Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
B
-
357 Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
Air temperature warmer than standard.
C
-
358 Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92"
Hg?
In warmer than standard air temperature.
In colder than standard air temperature.
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
B
-
359 Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
True altitude at field elevation.
Pressure al titude at field elevation.
Pressure altitude at sea level.
A
-
360 How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.
Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
A
-
361 How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.
A
-
362 Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?
Density.
Pressure.
Standard.
B
-
363 At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would
be approximately
7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.
B
-
364 The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
The field elevation.
29.92" Hg.
The current altimeter setting.
B
-
365 If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated
altitude, the true airspeed will
Decrease and true altitude will increase.
Increase and true altitude will decrease.
Increase and true altitude will increase.
C
-
366 Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Pressure altitude at sea level.
True altitude at field elevation.
Pressure altitude at field elevation.
B
-
367 Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate
height above
Sea level.
The standard datum plane.
Ground level.
B
-
368 When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude
change and by what value?
Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
B
-
369 En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg
during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the
approximate indication upon landing?
715 feet.
1,300 feet.
Sea level.
C
-
370 En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly,
what will it indicate after landing?
100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.
C
-
371 Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?
Indicated.
Pressure.
Calibrated.
B
-
372 What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher
on a direct flight off airways?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92"
Hg.
Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
C
-
373 While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what
pressure altitude are you flying?
24,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
26,000 feet.
B
-
374 If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your
altimeter
On 29.92" Hg.
On the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
To the airport elevation.
C
-
375 The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
The cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
Better vertical separation of aircraft.
More accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.
B
-
376 How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true
altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude
should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C
-
377 How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude
should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C
-
378 One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
Ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.
Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
Deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
B
-
379 If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual
references, the attitude indicator
a. Should immediately show straight-and-level flight.
Will show a slight skid and climb to the right.
May show a slight climb and turn.
C
-
380 As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
Full bar width on the attitude indicator.
Half bar width on the attitude indicator.
Two bar width on the attitude indicator.
C
-
381 Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
A
-
382 What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
C
-
383 During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to
straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?
A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
B
-
384 Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft
rolls out of a
180° turn.
270° turn.
360° turn.
A
-
385 When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
Climb.
Descent.
Right turn.
A
-
386 When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
Lefft turn.
Climb.
Descent.
C
-
387 While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
Vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
C
-
388 While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.
Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
Airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
A
-
389 Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn – and – slip indicator to determine if the
Needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon
Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid
Ball will move freely from one end of the tube of other when the aircraft is rocked.
B
-
390 What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
B
-
391 What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
A
-
392 What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Angle of bank and rate of turn.
Angle of bank.
A
-
393 What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
A
-
394 What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
Quality of the turn.
A
-
395 Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
Attitude indicator
Heading indicator or magnetic compass.
Ball of the turn coordinator.
C
-
396 What force causes an airplane to turn?
Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component.
Horizontal lift component.
C
-
397 The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon
The horizontal lift component.
The vertical lift component.
Centrifugal force.
A
-
398 When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of attack.
A
-
399 During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal
force, and load factor?
Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is grater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.
B
-
400 What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated
turn?
Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
B
-
401 When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
Decrease the angle of bank
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack
Decrease the angle of attack
B
-
402 During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered primary for bank?
Heading indicator.
Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.
Attitude indicator.
B
-
403 If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
4 minutes.
C
-
404 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
A
-
405 If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
30 seconds
1 minute
1 minute 3 seconds
B
-
406 During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and
radius of turn?
Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.
C
-
407 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
A
-
408 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading
of 090° to a heading of 300°?
30 seconds.
40 seconds.
50 seconds.
C
-
409 If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?
1 minute.
1 minute 20 seconds.
1 minute 30 seconds.
C
-
410 Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
Decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.
Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
B
-
411 The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
Indicate the angle of bank.
Remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
Increase as angle of bank increases.
C
-
412 (Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a
coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.
A
-
413 (Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
A
-
414 (Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
B
-
415 (Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a
coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
B
-
416 (Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
C
-
417 What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR
flight?
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment
after taxi turns.
After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
A
-
418 On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
Swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.
Exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.
Swing freely and indicate known headings.
C
-
419 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left
from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C
-
420 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C
-
421 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
A
-
422 On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank
of approximately 15°?
135° through 225°.
90° and 270°.
180° and 0°.
B
-
423 What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.
Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.
The magnetic dip characteristic.
C
-
424 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the
left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
A
-
425 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but
lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual
heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C
-
426 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
B
-
427 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left
from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to th e magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C
-
428 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left
from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
B
-
429 Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.
Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
C
-
430 En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly,
what will it indicate after landing?
100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.
C
-
431 If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be
expected?
No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.
Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.
Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.
A
-
432 If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you
observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing
conditions?
The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
C
-
433 What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?
The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.
The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
A
-
434 What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if
the static ports were iced over?
The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
C
-
435 If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside
the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
a. The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
C
-
436 During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be
affected?
The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.
A
-
437 If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside
the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter to read higher than normal.
The vertical speed to show a climb.
B
-
438 (Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the
airplane to straight-and-level flight.
Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude
indicator.
Vacuum system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed.
Electrical system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce
airspeed.
A
-
439 (Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
Climbing turn to the right.
Climbing turn to the left.
Descending turn to the right.
A
-
440 (Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the
instruments has malfunctioned.
Level turn to the right.
Level turn to the left.
Straight-and-level flight.
C
-
441 What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
C
-
442 What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.
B
-
443 What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check.
Power control.
Aircraft control.
C
-
444 What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control.
Instrument cross-check.
Instrument interpretation.
B
-
445 What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true
airspeed?
When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.
B
-
446 The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope
Must be increased if the ground speed is decreased.
Will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant.
Must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.
C
-
447 To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be
Decreased if the airspeed is increased.
Decreased if the ground speed is increased.
Increased if the ground speed is increased.
C
-
448 The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon
True airspeed.
Calibrated airspeed.
Ground speed.
C
-
449 The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted
initially?
Pitch and power.
Power only.
Pitch only.
B
-
450 During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will
Remain the same regardless of ground speed.
Increase as the ground speed increases.
Decrease as the ground speed increases.
B
-
451 The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated
straight-and-level flight?
Magnetic compass.
Attitude indicator.
Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.
A
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452 What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a
constant rate?
Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
Heading indicator and attitude indicator.
Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
A
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453 What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a
constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank airspeed indicator for power.
Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.
A
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454 What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Attitude indicator.
Turn coordinator.
Heading indicator.
B
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455 As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments
are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
A
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