Microbiology Test 2

  1. What does EPEC stand for?
    Enteropathogenic E. coli
  2. Does EPEC have blood or leukocytes in the stool?
  3. Which E. coli is known to cause Traveler's Diarrhea?
    ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli)
  4. What is the most commonly isolated Klebsiella species?
    Klebsiella pneumonia
  5. What are the three key reactions that often occur for Klebsiella species?
    • Indole: Negative
    • Lactose: Positive
    • Ornithine: Negative
  6. What are all Klebsiella species resistant to? (three antibiotics)
    Ampicillin, ticarcillin, carenicillin
  7. Which test differentiates between Klebsiella pneumonia and Enterobacter?
  8. What are the results for Klebsiella pneumonia for IMVIC (Indole, Methyl Red, Vogues Proskauer, Citrate)
  9. Where are Enterobacter species found?
    Sewage, soil, water
  10. What are the two tests and results that are characteristic of the Enterobacter species?
    • Lactose: Positive
    • Ornithine: Positive
  11. What are Enterobacter species resistant to?
    ampicillin and first generation cephalothins
  12. What are the IMVIC results for Enterobacter species?
  13. Are Enterobacter species motile?
  14. What sugars are contained in TSI and in what percentages?
    • Glucose: 0.1%
    • Lactose: 1%
    • Sucrose: 1%
  15. What are the lysine and arginine results for Enterobacter cloacae?
    • Lysine: Negative
    • Arginine: Positive
  16. What are the lysine and arginine results for Enterobacter aerogenes?
    • Lysine: Positive
    • Arginine: Negative
  17. What does the citrate test test for?
    Detects sodium citrate utilization for carbon source
  18. What is the positive color for the citrate test?
    Blue color and growth
  19. What is the negative color for the citrate test?
    Green color with no growth
  20. What component is used in the Indole test?
  21. What is tryptophan broken down into for the indole test?
    Indole, pyruvic acid and ammonia
  22. Name several indole producers
    E. Coli, Shigella (serogroup A,B,C) variable, Edwardisella tarda, Citrobacter koseri, Proteus vulargis, Providencia spp., Morganella morganii, Yersinia enterocolitica (variable)
  23. Which reagent do we use to detect indole with SIM?
    Kovacs' reagent
  24. What does TSI stand for?
    Triple Iron Sugar
  25. For Shigella dysenteriae, what is the carrier?
  26. What is the most communicable of bacteria diarrheas?
    Shigella dysenteriae
  27. What do you stain for in the case of a
    Shigella dysenteriae infection?
    Fecal WBCs
  28. What does PAD detect?
    Phenylalanine deaminase
  29. What is OF media more sensitive for?
    Non fermenter reactions
  30. What is contained in OF media?
    • .2% peptone content
    • Brothymol blue indicator
    • Diphosphate buffer
  31. Which three organisms from the gram negative non-fermenter group are generally PAD positive?
    Proteus, Providencia, and Morganella
  32. Which organism has a metallic sheen, polar monotrichous flagella, and has a grape-like odor?
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  33. This pathogen is the leading organism associated with cystic fibrosis.
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  34. What are the anibiotics used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa via an aerosolized aminoglycoside?
    • Gentamicin (GM)
    • Neomycin (NN)
    • Amikacin (AK)
  35. Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa beta hemolytic?
  36. This pathogen often colonizes after Pseudomonas aeruginosa and causes a rapid decline in CF patients.
    Burkholderia cepacia
  37. What is Burkholderia cepacia sensitive to?
    SXT sensitive
  38. Burkholderia cepacia, Pseudomonas aeroginosa, and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia are what type of gram negative rods?
  39. Cedecea is often confused with what organism?
  40. Which test results are similar between Serratia and Cedecea?
    Both are lipase positive, and resistant to colistin and cephalothin
  41. This test detects the presence of acetoin produced by bacteria during the process of fermentation of glucose.
  42. What is the result of voges-proskauer for Enterobacter cloacae?
    Negative (No color)
  43. What does Eosin-Methylene blue agar (EMB) selective and differential for?
    Differentiates between lactose fermentors and non-lactose fermetors
  44. If lactose is fermented in Eosin-Methylene Blue agar, what color do the colonies appear to be?
  45. What is one key component related to Klebsiella pneumoniae and its motility?
    The are non-motile
  46. What is the indicator for the Citrate test?
    Bromthylmol blue
  47. What do Morganella, Proteus spp, and Providencia spp have in common?
  48. What are the species that are IMViC = ++ --
    E.  coli and Edwardsellia
  49. Who am I?

    H2S +
    Oxidase +
    k/k means non fermentor

    Shewanella putrefaciens

  50. What are the only two non-fermenting gram negative rods that are oxidase negative?
    Acinetobacter baumannii and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
  51. Which organism is motile at room temperature?
    Yersinia enterocolitica
  52. What is the most resistant of the Enterobacter species?
    Klebsiella pneumonia
  53. Who am I?

    Oxidase +
    Urea -
    Grows at 25 and 35 degrees celcius
    Hippurate -
    Camphylobacter fetus
  54. Who am I?

    Oxidase +
    Urea -
    Grows at 25 and 35 degrees celcius
    Hippurate +
    Camphylobacter jejuni
  55. Who am I?

    Tiny GNBFlat, dull colonies on BAP with irregular edges and lavender-green hemolysis
    Oxidase Pos
    Catalase pos
    Motility Pos
    Obligate aerobe
    Urea Negative
    OF media alkaline
    Alcaligenes faecalis

    Similar to Moraxella in that it is asaccharolytic, but note the differences in motility
  56. Who am I?

    TSI= K/A, no gas, no H2S
    Oxidase -
    Citrate -
    Indole +
    Motility +
    Urea +
    Orinithine +
    Morganella morganii

    Note that it is PAD positive which narrows it down to three species and note that it is citrate negative

    This species is often found in UTIs
  57. Who am I?

    TSI= K/A with gas
    H2S +
    Urea  -
    Citrate +
    Indole -

    Note that there are only 4 species of fermenters that produce H2S. Salmonella, Edwardsiella, Proteus mirabilis, and Proteus vulgaris. You can further distinguish this because Proteus is normally Urea + and Edwardsiella is indole +
  58. Pseudomonas aeroginosa only oxidizes which sugar?
  59. Pseudomonas aeroginosa grows best at what temperature?
    42 degrees celcius
  60. Which organism is the only non-fermenter to produce pyocyanin?
    Pseudomonas aeroginosa
  61. Which two antigens are used to serotype?
    O and H
  62. The H antigen is related to which part of bacteria?
    Protein surface of Flagella
  63. In order to remove the Vi antigen to detect O, what would you do with the specimen?
    Heat to 100 degrees celcius
  64. What is the Hektoen Enteric Agar selective for?
    Stool Pathogens Salmonella and Shigella
  65. What are the carbohydrate sources in HE agar?
    Lactose, Sucrose and Salicin
  66. What is the sulfur source in HE agar used for H2S detection?
    Sodium Thiosulfate
  67. Who am I?

    TSI= K/A
    Gas Pos
    Urea variable
    Cirtate Pos
    Lysine Neg
    Arginine Neg
    Ornithine Neg
    PAD Pos
    Motility Pos
    Indole Pos

    PAD positive breaks it down into the 3 PAD+ species. It may have gas but it isn't sulfur. Then like at citrate results.
Card Set
Microbiology Test 2
for class