The most important algorithm to know for adult resuscitation is:
D) Cardiac Arrest
The systematic approach with a person in cardiac arrest should include the BLS survey and ACLS survey?
A) True
B) False
A) True
While conducting the BLS Survey, you should do all of the following except:
C) open the airway
According to new 2010 Guidelines for CPR, which of the following is in the correct order for the patient with sudden cardiac arrest?
B) give 30 compressions, open airway, provide ventilation, attach AED as soon as possible
After providing a shock with an AED you should:
D) Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions
During CPR with no advanced airway in place the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:
D) 30:2
During CPR after an advanced airway is in place, which of the following is true:
D) One breath every 6 to 8 seconds should be given
The most important intervention with witnessed sudden cardiac arrest is:
A) early defibrillation
Typically, suctioning attempts in ACLS situations should be:
A) ten seconds or less B) 20 seconds or less C) 5 seconds or less D) no more than 30 seconds
A) ten seconds or less
What is the drug of first choice for symptomatic bradycardia?
C) atropine
Which ECK rhythm is commonly associated with bradycardia?
C) Morbiz II
What is generally considered the most important and clinically significant degree block?
B) third-degree AV block
Which drugs are involved in the Bradycardia Algorithm?
B) atropine, epinephrine, dopamine
Bradyarrhythmia is defined as:
B) any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute
Symptomatic bradycardia exists when ____.
D) all of the above are needed for symptomatic bradycardia to exist
Symptoms of bradycardia can include chest discomfort or pain, shortness of breath, decreased level of consciousness, weakness, fatigue, lightheadedness, dizziness, and presyncope or syncope.
A) True
B) False
A) True
Signs of symptomatic bradycardia include hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, diaphoresis, pulmonary congestion, runs of PVC's or VT.
A) True
B) False
A) True
The primary decision point in the bradycardia algorithm is the determination of:
A) adequate perfusion
After it is determined that the patient does not have adequate perfusion your first step is to:
C) give atropine while awaiting transcuataneous pacer
The correct dose of atropine given in the bradycardia algorithm is:
B) 0.5 mg atropine, may repeat up to 3 mg
The correct dose of epinephrine given in the bradycardia algorithm is:
C) 2-10 mcg/min
The correct dose of dopamine given in the bradycardia algorithm is:
B) 2-10 mcg/kg/min infusion
The key clinical question when determining steps to take for the patient with symptomatic bradycardia is:
D) Are the symptoms caused by bradycardia or some other illness?
The treatment sequence for bradycardia with poor perfusion is:
B) prepare for transcutaneous pacing, consider atropine while preparing TCP, use epinephrine or dopamine while awaiting pacemaker or if pacing is ineffective.
Transcutaneous pacing should be started immediately if:
D) all of the above
If transcutaneous pacing is ineffective for symptomatic bradycardia, the next step would be to prepare for:
D) prepare for transvenous pacing
Atropine doses of less than 0.5 mg may paradoxically result in further slowing of the heart rate.
A) True
B) False
A) True
For bradycardia unresponsive to atropine, what other drug should be considered?
B) epinephrine
The treatment of choice for symptomatic bradycardia with signs of poor perfusion is ____.
B) transcutaneous pacing
Transcutaneous pacing is contraindicated in the patient with ___.
A) severe hypothermia
For transcutaneous pacing, the current millamperes (mA) output should be:
B) set 2 mA above capture dose
For transcutaneous pacing, the demand rate should be set at:
D) started at 60/min with adjustment based on clinical reponse
Transcutaneous pacing is not recommended for which of the following?
B) asystole
Preparation for transcutaneous pacing should be made for which of the following?
D) all of the above
What is the infusion rate for epinephrine in the bradycardia algorithm?
A) 2-10 micrograms/min
Identify the following rhythm.
B) sinus bradycardia
If transcutaneous pacing and drugs fail, what would be your next intervention?
D) transvenous pacing
The following rhythm is complete block. Which definition of complete block is correct.
B) The impulse generated in the SA node in the atrium does not propagate to the ventricles and there is no apparent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.
Which of the following is not correct?
C) second degree AV block type II = Mobitz I
PEA is defined as:
B. Any organized rhythm without a palpable pulse
The two most important aspects to treating PEA are:
A. Provide effective CPR and correct the underlying cause of the rhythm.
Some common causes of PEA are:
D. All of the above
In PEA, advanced airway placement is a priority over establishing IV/IO access.
A. True
B. False
B. False
All resuscitation team members must simultaneously conduct a search for an underlying and treatable cause of the PEA in addition to their roles.
A. True
B. False
A. True
As soon as IV/IO access is available, the patient should be given:
A. 1 mg ephinephrine
When hypoxia is the primary cause of PEA what clues may be noted on assessment?
A. slow rate on ECG
During PEA, what step occurs after CPR and medication administration?
D. rhythm check
The H's and T's that are possible causes of PEA include all the following except:
D. hypoxia, thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia`
When hypovolemia is the primary cause of PEA what clues may be noted on assessment?
D. all of the above
Some clues for PEA caused by acidosis (hydrogen ion) would be all of the below except:
A. recent trauma
Recommended treatment to reverse PEA caused by acidosis is:
D. both A and B
adequate ventilation and sodium bicarbonate
PEA caused by HYPERkalemia may present with which of the following rhythm changes?
D. wide QRS complex, smaller P-waves, and T-waves taller and peaked
Patients that you might more commonly see with PEA caused by HYPERkalemia are all the following except which one?
B. elderly
Reversing Hyperkalemia is done using which of the following medications?
D. any of the above
PEA caused by HypOkalemia may present with which if the following symptoms?
D. flattened T-waves, prominent U waves, wide QRS, prolonged QT
Patients that you might more commonly see with PEA caused by HypOkalemia are:
B. patients using diuretics
Life threatening hypokalemia is uncommon but can occur in the setting of gastrointestinal and renal losses and is associated with hyomagnesemia. Treatment with magnesium may help during cardiac arrest.
A. True
B. False
A. True
The "T" that represents drug overdose and chemical exposure among frequent causes of PEA stands for:
B. toxins
A clue that PEA could be caused by drug overdose "Toxins" is:
B. prolonged QT interval
In patients with PEA/cardiac arrest and without known pulmonary embolism (PE), routine fibrinolytic treatment given during CPR shows no benefit and is not recommended.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Reversing PEA caused by Tamponade is performed by:
B. pericardiocentesis
Tension pneumothroax which can be a cause of PEA may be recognized by all of the following symptoms except:
A. wide QRS complex on ECG
The "T" in PEA representing Acute MI or massive pulmonary embolism stands for ____.
C. thrombosis
Pulmonary Thrombosis (massive pulmonary embolism) induced PEA may manifest itself with which symptoms?
D. all of the above
Hypvolemia Which is a common cause of PEA can be rapidly reversed by _____.
B. fluid resuscitation
Which cause of PEA is least likely to benefit from treatment?
D. thrombosis (pulmonary/coronary)
the two most common and easily reversible causes of PEA are:
D. hypovolemia and hypoxia
For a patient in asystole which has the higher priority?
A. IV/IO access
According to the 2015-2020 guidelines, drugs used in the asystole include:
C. epinephrine
What must be ruled out before a patient's rhythm can be classified as "true asystole"?
C. other causes of isoelectric ECG
What are some causes of isoeletric ECG (false asystole)?
D. all of the above
What are 4 reasons that BLS and ACLS should be stopped or withheld?
B. rigor mortis, DNR status, living will directives, threat to safety of rescuers
The first drug to be used in the pulseless arrest-PEA/asystole branch is ________.
A. epinephrine
The therapy pathway for asystole/PEA is designed around _______.
A. periods of uninterrupted (5 cycles or 2 minutes), high quality CPR
Which of the following is a consideration for a patient is asystole?
D. both A. and B.
underlying causes for the asystole & possibility of termination of CPR
All of the following are important in the asystole pathway of the cardiac arrest algorithm. Which is the correct order of importance?
B. High quality CPR, gain IV/IO access, advance airway
When starting an IV or administering drugs during CPR, do not stop CPR
A. True
B. False
A. True
Fine Ventricular Fibrillation may appear as asystole. If this is unclear an initial attempt at defibrillation may be warranted.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Interruption of chest compressions to conduct a rhythm check should not exceed ___ seconds.
B. ten
Drugs used in the VF/Pulseless VT Algorithm included:
D. epinephrine, amiodarone, lidocaine, and magnesium sulfate
The primary ACLS traetment for VF and Pulseless VT is:
C. high-energy unsynchronized shocks
If an AED is on the patient and a manual defibrillator is available you should ____________.
B. replace the AED because continued use of the AED may result in unnecessary prolonged interruptions in chest compression for rhythm analysis and shock administration
Even a 5 to 10 second pause in chest compressions can reduce the chance that a shock will terminate VF.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Chest compressions should be continued while the defibrillator is charging.
A. True
B. False
A. True
For VF/Pulseless VT how many shocks should initially be given?
D. 1 shock
The initial energy dose delivered in Pulseless Arrest (VF/VT) with biphasic defibrillator is typically _______.
B. 120-200 J
After the first shock for pulseless VF/VT you should:
C. immediately resume CPR
If using a monophasic defibrillator for Pulseless VF/VT the first dose and all subsequent doses should be _____J.
D. 360
If you do not know the effective biphasic dose range for the defibrillator that you are using, you should deliver a first shock and all subsequent shocks at ____.
D. the maximal energy dose that is available
The drug Vasopressin can be used as a substitute for epinephrine for the first or second dose during resuscitation
a. true
b. false
a. true
If VF is initially terminated by a shock but recurs later in the resuscitation attempt you should:
B. shock at the previously successful energy level
Select the sequence that is in the correct order?
A. give 1 shock, 5 cycles CPR, check rhythm, give 1 shock, 5 cycles CPR, check rhythm after 2nd shock give 1mg epinephrine IV PUSH
You have given a patient the 1st shock and CPR 5 cycles, your next step is to _____
A. check rhythm
You have given a patient the 1st shock, CPR for 5 cycles, and now they have an organized rhythm. Your next step is to __________.
A. palpate for a pulse
If during VF/VT after a shock, the rhythm check reveals a __________ rhythm and _________, you then should proceed with the asystole/PEA pathway of the ACLS Pulseless Arrest.
D. nonshockable, no pulse
The appropriate dosage for the 2nd administration of amiodarone in the left branch of the cardiac arrest algorithm is _____.
A. 150 mg
Five cycles of CPR should take about _____ minutes.
B. 2
You have shocked the patient, given 5 cycles of CPR and have done a rhythm check. Now, the patient remains in VT with no pulse. What should you do next:
A. give the patient a second shock
The maximum time chest compressions should be interrupted is ____ seconds.
C. 10 seconds
The initial energy dose used during defibrillation is dependent upon ______.
C. whether the defibrillator is monophasic or biphasic
Prior to defibrillation which of the following should be done?
D. all of the above
Epinephrine is used during resuscitation primarily for its alpha-adrenergic effects. Alpha-adrenergic effects include:
D. increase in coronary blood flow resulting from vasoconstriction
Vasopressin was completely removed from the 2015-2020 Cardiac Arrest Algorithm for the treatment of pulseless VT and VF.
a. true
b. flase
a. true
When treating pulseless VF/VT remember to ______.
D. all of the above
The H's of treatable contributing factors are:
A. hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion, hypo-/hyperkalemia, hypothermia
After the third shock during CPR in the pulseless VF/VT algorithm, you should ______.
C. consider giving antiarrhythmic drugs
Four important aspects to the Pulseless VF/VT algorithm are:
A. early defibrillation, effective CPR (hard and fast), secure the airway, establish IV/IO access
For the pulseless VF/VT algorithm, the proper first dose of IV Amiodarone is ___________.
C. 300 mg
A second dose of ________ IV Amiodarone can be given.
D. 150 mg
A tachyarrhythmia is defines as "any rhythm other than sinus tachycardia with a rate greater than _________."
B. 100
Unstable tachycardia exists when the heart rate is too fast for the patient's clinical condition and the excessive heart rate causes symptoms
a. true
b. false
a. true
Symptoms that may be due to tachycardia include all the following except:
A. facial droop
Serious signs or symptoms of tachycardia can include which of the following:
E. all of the above
Heart rates from ____ to ___ (per minute) usually are the result of an underlying process (fever, anemia, blood loss, etc.) and are generally sinus tachycardia.
B. 100-130
The higher the rate, the more likely symptoms are due to tachyarrhythmia and not an underlying comorbidity.
a. true
b. false
a. true
The decision point for performing immediate synchronized cardioversion is:
B. the patient is unstable and no other reversible causes are identified
Tacyarrhthmias respond to cardioversion. Sinus tachycardia will not respond to cardioversion. What wil often occur if a shock is delivered with sinus tachycardia?
A. heart rate increases
Which of the following would be considered a tachyarrhythmia if the ventricular rate is greater than 100?
D. all of the above
When performing synchronized electrical cardioversion on a patient, the shock will occur at the exact time that you press the "deliver shock button."
a. true
b. false
b. false
Which of the following is not an appropriate initial intervention when addressing tachycardia with a pulse?
B. attempt vagal maneuvers
Tachycardia rates less than 150 per minute usually do not cause serious signs or symptoms
a. true
b. false
a. true
Which of the following are key questions that should be addressed during the assessment and management of a patient with tachycardia?
E. All of the above
With tachycardia, if a patient is seriously ill or has significant underlying heart disease or other conditions, symptoms may be present at a lower heart rate?
a. true
b. false
a. true
If a tachyarrhythmia is causing a patient to become unstable what is the most important intervention?
D. cardioversion
Unstable Monomorphic VT and Polymorphic VT are treated with the same interventions?
a. true
b. false
b. false
Which is the correct treatment for unstable polymorphic VT?
C. treat as VF with high-energy unsynchronized shocks
Which is the correct treatment of unstable monomorphic VT with a pulse?
D. treat with synchronized cardioversion and an initial shock of 100J
If there is any doubt about whether an unstable patient has monomorphic or polymorphic VT what should you do?
D. treat with high-energy unsynchronized shocks
If the patient is unstable with a narrow-complex SVT what IV medications can be given as you prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion? (not shown in unstable pathway but can be given)
B. adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
Which is the correct definition of unsynchronized shock?
a. The electrical shock is delivered as soon as the operator pushed the SHOCK button to discharge the machine. The shock can fall randomly anywhere within the cardiac cycle.
b. The electrical shock is delivered with a peak of the R wave in the QRS Complex thus avoiding the delivery of a shock during cardiac repolarization (t-wave).
a. The electrical shock is delivered as soon as the operator pushed the SHOCK button to discharge the machine. The shock can fall randomly anywhere within the cardiac cycle.
Synchronized cardioversion uses a higher energy level than used with unsynchronized cardioversion (defibrillation).
a. true
b. false
b. false
Low-energy shocks are always delivered synchronized due to the fact that low energy shocks have the potential to produce which rhythm if delivered unsynchronized?
D. VF
Which of the following cases is unsynchronized shock not advised?
C. for a patient who has unstable tachycardia with a pulse
How many doses of adenosine rapid IV push can be give with the tachycardia algorithm?
C. 2
Two interventions that can be performed for a regular narrow-complex tachyarrhythmias are vagal maneuvers and adenosine administration?
a. true
b. false
a. true
Adenosine can be given 2 times to attempt conversion of tachyarrhythmia. What is the recommended dosing schedule?
D. 6mg, if no conversion then 12mg
Cardioversion is contraindicated for sinus tachycardia because the increased heart rate is being caused by an external influence such as fever, blood loss, or exercise.
a. true
b. false
a. true
With sinus tachycardia, the goal is to identify and treat the underlying systemic causes.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Adenosine can be considered for the diagnosis and treatment of stable undifferentiated wide-complex tachycardia when the rhythm is regular and the QRS waveform is monomorphic.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Immediate assessments and actions for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of ACS include:
F. all of the above
Once a patient has arrived in the emergency department with ACS symptoms, the goal is to analyze the ECG within ____ minutes of arrival.
D. 10 mins
What is the primary focus of treatment of a patient with ACS?
A. early reperfusion of the STEMI patient
Which rhythm is most commonly caused by acute myocardial ischemia and is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death?
D. VF
Reperfusion therapy may involve which of the following:
D. both a and b
PCI and fibrinolytic therapy
Which of the following drugs are used in the initial treatment of ACS (acute coronary syndrome)?
A. aspirin, morphine, nitroglycerin
Which of the following is essential to the risk and treatment stratification process in the ACS algorithm?
D. obtaining a 12-lead ECG
What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction?
D. discomfort in the retrosternal chest
Other life-threatening conditions that may cause acute chest discomfort are:
D. all of the above
EMS/ED providers should administer oxygen if the oxyhemoglobin saturation is <(less than) ____%.
B. 94
There is insufficient evidence to support the routine use of oxygen in uncomplicated ACS without signs of hypoxemia and heart failure or both.
a. true
b. false
a. true
What arrhythmia is most likely to develop in the first 4 hours after onset of acute coronary syndrome?
C. VF
For the patient with chest pain, nitroglycerine should be administered if the patient's systolic blood pressure remains > (greater than) _____ and the heart rate is 50-100/min.
A. 90
Which pain medication is indicated in STEMI when chest discomfort is unresponsive to nitrates?
D. morphine
For the patient with acute coronary syndrome, use of Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are contraindicated (except for aspirin) and should be discontinued.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Response to nitroglycerine (nitrate therapy) is not diagnostic for acute coronary syndrome.
a. true
b. false
a. true
One of the goals of reperfusion therapy is to perform PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention) within ___ mins of arrival in the ED.
D. 90 mins
What is the major contraindication to aspirin administration?
F. both a and b
true aspirin allergy and recent GI bleed
Fibrinolytic agents or "clot busters" are effective in about ____% of the patients given these drugs.
C. 50
Fibrin specific agents include which of the following?
D. all of the above
What is the recommended dosage of oral aspirin to be given within the ACS protocol?
B. 160-325mg
Which item(s) below can be used to identify a STEMI?
B. 12-lead EKG
One goal of reperfusion therapy is to give fibrinolytics within ___ mins of arrival.
B. 30
Morphine is recommended for patients suspected of having ischemic chest discomfort that does not respond to nitrates.
a. true
b. false
a. true
consultation with a cardiologist should take place before treatment of STEMI.
a. true
b. false
b. false
Patients with suspected ACS should have oxygen administered if the patient is ______.
D. any of the above
The 4 agents that are routinely recommended for consideration in patients with ischemic-type chest discomfort are:
A. aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine, and oxygen if hypoxemic (O2 < 94%)
What is the major contraindication to administration of nitroglycerine and morphine?
C. hypotension
For cases in which fibrinolytics are contraindicated, what intervention should be performed?
A. PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)
Routine use of IV nitroglycerine is not indicated for STEMI and has not been shown to significantly reduce mortality in STEMI.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Indications for the use of intravenous nitroglycerine in STEMI are:
D. all of the above
Which is a contraindication for the use of nitroglycerin in the ACS protocol?
D. all of the above
The most common form of stroke is:
B. ischemic
Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood Bessel in the brain suddenly ruptures into surrounding cerebral tissue.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Hemorrhagic strokes are potentially eligible for fibrinolytic therapy.
a. true
b. false
b. false
Upon arrival to the ED, how soon should a suspected stroke patient receive an assessment and order for a non-contrast CT scan?
C. within 10 mins
A neurological assessment and CT scan should be completed within ____ mins of ED arrival.
B. 25
Interpretation of the CT scan should be completed within ____ mins of ED arrival.
A. 45
For patients who qualify for fibrinolytic therapy, it should be initiated within ___mins of hospital arrival.
A. 60
The correct order of the 8 D's of stroke care is:
C. detection, dispatch, delivery, door, data, decision, drug, disposition
Detection: rapid recognition of stroke symptoms
Dispatch: early activation and dispatch of emergency medical services (EMS) system by calling 911
Delivery: rapid EMS identification, management, and transport
Door: appropriate triage to stroke center
Data: rapid triage, evaluation, and management within the emergency department (ED)
Disposition: rapid admission to stroke unit, critical-care unit
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale identifies a stroke on the basis of these three physical findings:
B. facial droop, arm drift, abnormal speech
From the time of onset of symptoms for ischemic stroke, how long do you generally have to initiate fibrinolytic therapy?
C. 3 hours
The critical decision point in the assessment of the patient with acute stroke is the performance and interpretation of a _________.
A. non-contrast CT scan
What should not be given until intracranial hemorrhage has been ruled out?
D. all of the above
If hemorrhage is not present on the initial CT scan and the patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytics for other reasons, consider giving what medication?
A. aspirin
Which of the following will exclude someone from the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
D. all of the above
For inclusion of fibrinolytic therapy, the onset of symptoms must be less than ___ hours before beginning treatment.
C. 3
The minimum age for inclusion of fibrinolytic therapy is ____years of age.
A. 18
Anticoagulants or antiplatelet treatment should not be administered for ____hrs after administration of rtPA.
D. 24
In certain instances, the time allowed for consideration of treatment can be pushed back to ___ hrs after onset of symptoms.
A. 4.5
Intra-arterial administration of rtPA, which is not yet approved by the FDA, can be given within the first ___hrs after onset of symptoms and has been documented to improve functional outcomes.
D. 6
During rtPA treatment, blood pressure should be monitored every ____ mins for 2 hrs from the start of rtPA therapy.
A. 15
What does ROSC stand for:
B. return of spontaneous circulation
In the post-cardiac arrest phase, you should maintain oxygen saturation levels at
C. ≥ 94%
In the post arrest phase hypotension is considered _____ .
A. SBP < 90
The most reliable method of confirming and monitoring correct placement of an ET tube is _____.
A. continuous waveform capnography
Which of the following is the only post-resuscitation intervention that has been demonstrated to improve neurologic recovery after cardiac arrest?
A. therapeutic hypothermia (Now called Targeted Temperature Management)
The teratment of hypotension during the post-cardiac arrest will often include IV bolus of fluids. What is the recommended amount of NS or lactated Ringer's that should be given?
C. 1-2 L
If Targeted Temperature Management is indicated in the post-resuscitation phase, what is the recommended temperature fluids should be cooled to?
D. 4° C
Three medications recommended for the treatment of hypotension in the post-resuscitation phase are:
A. epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
The medications used for the treatment of hypotension in the previous question should be titrated to keep the SBP > ___ mmHg or a mean arterial pressure of >___mmHg
C. 90, 65
The medications used for the treatment of hypotension during the post-arrest phase including epinephrine, dopamine, and norepinephrine all use weight based doses?
a. true
b. fasle
a. true
In the post resusciation phase, what is the decision point for the use of Targeted Temperature Management?
B. The patient fails to follow commands
To induce hypothermia for Targeted Temperature Management, health care providers should cool patients to a single target temperature of __-__.
D. 32-36° C
How long should cooling measures persist during the post-arrest phase?
B. At least 24 hrs
The purpose of Targeted Temperature Management is to:
B. protect the brain and other organgs
Which of the following are considered safe and effective for indcution of Targeted Temperature Management?
D. all of the above
In comatose patient who spontaneously develop a mild degree of hypthermia (>32° C) after resuscitation from cardiac arrest, avoid active rewarming during the first 12-24 hrs after ROSC.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Axillary temperatures are adequate for measurment of core temperature during the post-resusciation phase.
a. true
b. false
b. false
Which of the following is considered adequate for monitoring core temperatures in the post-arrest phase?
D. all of the above
What does PCI mean?
A. percutaneous coronary intervention
In the Post-Cardiac Arrest Algorithm flowchart, you are instructed "DO NOT" do one thing. What is it?
A. hyperventilate
Health care providers should consider induced hypothermia for comatose adult patients with ROSC after in-hospital cardiac arrest from ventricular fibrillation only.
a. true
b. false
b. false
Waveform capnography measures which of the following:
D. PetCO2
In the post-resuscitation phase when using continuous waveform capnography, you should titrate breaths per minute to achieve PetCO2 (partial end-tidal carbon dioxide) of __________.
A. 35-40mmHg
In the post-resuscitation phase when evaluating an arterial blood gas, you should titrate breaths per minute to achieve PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) of _____.
A. 40-45 mmHg
In the post-resuscitiation phase what is a reasonable goal for the mean arterial blood pressure?
A. ≥65 mmHg
There are now 2 "Chanis of Survival" that are used for ACLS. These two chains include:
A. Out-of-Hospital and In-Hospital Cardiac Arrest
At what point in both chains of survival do the interventions converge?
D. in the cath lab
Rapid Response Teams (RRT) or Medical Emergency Teams (MET) can be effective for reducing the incidence of cardiac arrest.
a. true
b. false
a. true
The recommended sequence for CPR has been confirmed and will remain the same. What is the recommended sequence for single recuer CPR?
D. C-A-B (Circualtion, Airway, Breathing)
During CPR a compression depth of at least ___ is requried in adults.
C. 2 inches
High qulaity CPR includes all of the following except:
C. ensuring a 15:2 compression to ventilation ratio
Prior to 2010, when the A-B-C (airway-breathing-circulation) sequence was used for CPR, which of the following would often delay chest compressions?
D. all of the above
During CPR, the recommended chest compressions rate is ___ per minute.
A. 100-120/min
The recommendation for chest comprssion depth for adults is at least 2 inches (5cm) but not greater than ___ inches.
C. 2.4 inches
What is now recommended to be implemented in public access locations where there is a relatively high liklihood of witnessed cardiac arrest?
C. Public access defibrillators
Compressions-only CPR is recommended for singel-rescuer health care providers
a. true
b. false
b. false
When CPR is first initiated, how many chest compressions should be administered before giving 2 rescue breath.
C. 30
One important aspect of chest compressions is allow for complete chest recoil after each chest compression. What is one common error that can prevent full chest recoil.
A. leaning on the chest between compressions
Chest compression fraction is a measurement of the proportion of total resuscitation time that compressions are performed. (True or False) The optimal target for the chest compression fractions should be at least 50%.
a. true
b. false
b. false
The simple single rate fo rthe delivery of ventilations during cardiac arrest when an advanced airway is in place is __breath(s) every __ seconds.
C. 1 breath every 6 seconds
Vasopressin has been removed from the cardiac arrest algorithm.
a. true
b. false
a. true
It is now considered reasonable to administer what medication as soon as feasibly possible after the onset of cardiac arrest due to an initial nonshockable rhythm?
A. epinephrine
The routine use of lidocaine after cardiac arrest is not indicated, but providers may consider lidocaine when amiodarone is not available.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Within the post-cardiac arrest algorithm, the term therapeutic hypothermia has been changed to _____.
C. Targeted Temperature Management (TTM)
For post-cardiac arrest (TTM) targeted temperature management, a target temperature between __ and __ °C should be selected, achieved, and maintained constantly for at least 24 hrs.
B. 32 and 36
After 24 hrs of (TTM) targeted temperture management in the comatose post-cardiac paatient, it is recommended to activly prevent fevers.
a. true
b. false
a. true
The routine prehospital cooling of patients with rapid infusion of cold IV fluids after ROSC is now recommended.
a. true
b. false
b. false
During post-cardiac arrest care, the goal for adequate blood pressure should be to maintain a systolic BP (SBP) greater than ___mmHg and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than ____mmHG.
D. 90 and 65
In the out-of-hospital or ER setting, trained non-physicians may now perform ECG interpretation to determine whether or not the ECG shows evidence of STEMI.
a. true
b. false
a. true
Oxygen should be started on all suspected ACS (Acute Coronary Syndorme) patients regardless of oxygen saturation or respiratory condition.
a. true
b. false
b. false
How long should cooling measures persist during the post-arrest phase?
