SF 5 level volume 4 URE

  1. Which principle of war is he most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
  2. Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
  3. What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
    Aggressive defense
  4. A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing
    key terrains
  5. After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
  6. Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
    Security Forces
  7. Which agency will the BDOC up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through?
    Installation Command Post
  8. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons
  9. Personnel assigned to the Priority 3 routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
  10. What may be the most dangerous type of IED?
  11. Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
    President or SECDEF
  12. Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?
    Noncombatant evacuation
  13. Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
  14. Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?
  15. Force protection measures will be planned according with
    the risks to the force
  16. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
    Penetration attack
  17. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    Department of State
  18. The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is
  19. Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as
  20. Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?
  21. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorist are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
  22. The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use
    violence to achieve political goals
  23. COIN operations require leaders to exhibit
    patience, persistence, and presence
  24. To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgents operate?
    In small bands
  25. Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
    Intergovernmental organization
  26. Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
    The United Nations
  27. Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
    sovereignty issues
  28. Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air bases operation?
    Limited base
  29. What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
  30. During the base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
    Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan
  31. An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is
    base sectorization
  32. What should a flight sector sketch show?
    Flight and squadron identification
  33. In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
  34. Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
    The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive
  35. The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is
    50 meters
  36. To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS),
    remove the positive lead first
  37. Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and enunciators?
  38. What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?
  39. A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately
    30 seconds
  40. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
    aiming point
  41. What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?
    Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer
  42. How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
    Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it
  43. If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
  44. When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
    6-8 inches
  45. The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
    an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
  46. The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in
    dense fog
  47. What is the WSTI used for?
    To assess the alarms of the sensor activation
  48. How many people are required to set up the WSTI tripod?
  49. From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
  50. The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to
    assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system
  51. Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight?
    Eyepiece assembly
  52. What are the components of the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggles does the sacrificial window protect?
    Glass lens
  53. The level of performance for the AN-PVS-14 depends upon the level of
  54. On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
  55. On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?
    Eye relief adjustment
  56. The hand-held thermal imager powers on in what mode?
  57. During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?
    The weather and the type of material used.
  58. What are the components of the AN/PVS-7 night vision google?
    Facemask and goggle
  59. Where is the best position for a DFP to avoid enemy detection?
    the side of the hill
  60. What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection?
    Hiding, blending, and deceiving
  61. When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use
    light paint colors
  62. Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night?
    Noises seem amplified and revealing at night
  63. One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is
    wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth
  64. What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on a DFP?
    The potential for enemy observation of position
  65. What is the proper method of firing from a window?
    Kneeling and far back from the window
  66. To ensure there is no binding between the trigger and trigger pivot when the trigger is cocked, place the trip wire at
    right angles to the axis of the trigger
  67. When recovering M49A1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method?
    Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
  68. What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you can't use the rush technique?
    High crawl
  69. You use the rolling movement technique to
    confuse your adversary
  70. The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and
    not being aware of basement windows
  71. Allowing you weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called
  72. Selection of team movement techniques is based on
    likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
  73. Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
  74. In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located
    50 meters behind the lead fire team
  75. You use the bounding overwatch formation when
    enemy contact is expected
  76. What are the two type of ambushes?
    Near and far
  77. The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is
    a squad
  78. When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons?
    Along likely avenues of approach
  79. What is an easily located and defendable location on a patrol's route?
    Objective rally point
  80. Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
    400 meters
  81. What are the principles of NIDD?
    Notify, Impede, Disable and Destroy
  82. Where can you find the sheet name of a map?
    In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
  83. What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?
  84. What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?
    Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
  85. What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographical map?
    Index, intermediate, and supplementary
  86. What types of slope are evenly spaced, but close together?
  87. When reading a topographical map to plot a grid coordinate, you read from
    left to right; bottom to top
  88. What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured?
    Index mark
  89. The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
    a ruler
  90. To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is
    10 meters
  91. Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose?
    Compass to cheek
  92. If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time, the north-south line is between the hour hand and
    1300 hours
  93. Which method lets you locate a position using two well-defined locations pinpointed on a map?
  94. Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time consuming?
    Navigating by terrain association
  95. What does METT-TC stand for?
    Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops, and time available
  96. Why is navigating by terrain association preferred over dead reckoning?
    Errors in navigation are easily correctable
  97. The DAGR provides to the user position
    velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities
  98. Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution?
  99. What consists of a collection of position and movement data for a geographic location?
    Situational awareness
  100. How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11?
Card Set
SF 5 level volume 4 URE
5 level