Comp III 5-10

  1. Participation in unit deployment, field exercises, and other small unit deployments where unit integrity is maintained does not require the assignment of what?
    Pro and Con marks
  2. If the Semiannual and Promotion periods coincide, what will take presidence?
    Promotion marks
  3. What are the minimum acceptable proficiency and conduct marks during enlistment?
    Proficiency 3.0, conduct 4.0
  4. What mark should indicate how well a Marine performed his primary duty, technical skills, specialized knowledge, and the "whole Marine concept"?
  5. Who should the commander consult with when writing pro and con marks?
    The superviser of the Marine
  6. A majority of recruit pro and con marks will be in what range?
  7. An average recruit will have what pro and con mark of what?
  8. Recruits who receive a meritorious promotion will receive what pro and con marks?
  9. A recruit selected as Honor Grad will receive what pro and con marks?
  10. A proficiency mark below 3.0 will be documented by what?
    A page 11 entry
  11. What marking includes observance of the law and regulations, conformance, custom, and positive contribution to the Corps?
  12. Failure to make progress on wieght control or MAP should be considered when assigning what marks?
  13. Documentation of a conduct mark below 4.0 other than NJP/courts martial should be what?
    Page 11 entry
  14. Marines should review thier OMPF how often?
    Once every year
  15. The Master Brief Sheet contains what data?
    Header Data- from MCTFS, and Fitness Report Listing- from fitness reports
  16. The MBS Fitness Report Listing contains what?
    • Administrative Summary
    • RS Markings
    • RO Markings
  17. What are the steps for correcting a date gap from a missing report?
    • Exhaust all means of locating the RS
    • Complete the Section A w/o 5-8
    • Send Section and cover letter to the RS
    • RS forwards report to MMSB 31/34
  18. Who accomplishes RO actions for all reports longer than one year old?
    The CMC MMSB-30
  19. If a fitrep is adverse, who must review it?
    All members of the reporting chain
  20. If the RS fails to respond after you contact them, what must you forward to MMSB 31/34?
    • Copy of the correspondence with RS
    • FitRep
  21. If you cannot locate the RS to correct a FitRep, what must you do?
    Forward a FitRep to MMSB 31/34
  22. To correct a date gap caused by proceed/delay/travel, what must you do send to MMSB 31/34?
    • True copy of SRB page 3
    • cover letter
    • explanation
  23. To correct a date gap not including travel/proceed, what must you send MMSB?
    Letter endorsed by RS, RO
  24. What is in the OMPF S-Folder?
    • Service Computation Information (enlistment, extension, sevice time, etc.)
    • Other Pertinent Information (dependants, SGLI, security disclosure)
  25. What is in the OMPF C-Folder?
    Commendatory/Derogatory Info- Awards, etc.
  26. What is in the OMPF P-Folder?
    Performance Data- All Fitreps and addendum pages
  27. What is in the OMPF F-Folder?
    Field Record Data- SRB upon separation
  28. What is in the OMPF H-Folder?
    Health/Dental Data prior to 1994
  29. What is in the OMPF Photo Folder?
    Digital Photo- good for 12 months
  30. The Marine Corps basic ground combat doctrine is called what?
    Maneuver Warfare
  31. What fundamental of the offense is the commander's first priority, and may range from close contact to observation?
    Gain and Maintain Contact
  32. Once contact is made with the enemy, can it be volutarily broken?
  33. What fundamental of the offense consists of actions to determine strength, composition, and disposition of the enemy to assist the commander in planning?
    Develop the Situation
  34. What fundamental of the offense gives the main effort priority of all support, concentrates forces and fire to exploit at a decided point, and for the shortest time?
    Concentrate Superior Combat Power at the Decisive Time and Place
  35. What fundamental of the offense has the attacker avoid enemy strengths and attack with max speed/power against enemy weakness?
    Exploit Known Enemy Weakness
  36. In what fundamental of the offense does the commander seek to control or nuetralize key terrain for observation, cover, fire, approach, or security?
    Sieze or Control Key Terrain
  37. What fundamental of the offense has a goal of seizing and retaining initiative to dictate the terms of battle, instead of reacting to enemy actions?
    Gain and Retain the Initiative
  38. What fundamental of the offense nuetralizes the enemy by fire support, suppressing enemy forces/support, attacking command and control, blocking reinforcements, concealing intentions, and deception?
    Neutralize the Enemy's Ability to React
  39. What fundamental of the offense is characterized by fire and maneuver, combined and controlled to create combat power that culminates in a powerful and violent assualt?
    Advancing by Fire and Manuever
  40. What fundamental of the offense is the increase of combat power gained from seizing the initiative adn attacking rapidly and aggressively?
    Maintaining Momentum
  41. What fundamental of the offense must be pressed relentlessly to prevent the enemy from recovering from the initial shock, defending, and counterattacking?
    Exploit Sucess
  42. What fundamental of the offense states each unit is responsible for it's security, dictated by the likelihood of enemy contact, achieved by detecting the enemy, and offensive actions provide measures of security?
    Provide Security for the Force
  43. What type of offense is conducted to develop the situation, establish or regain contact with minimal forces, and expidite the employment and concentration of force?
    Movement to Contact
  44. What dictates the extent that GCE troops will be engaged in movement to contact?
    The commander's intent
  45. Movement to contact ends when?
    When resistance requires deployment of the Main Body (of troops)
  46. What type of offense is intended to defeat, destroy, or nuetralize the enemy, emphasizing max combat power, bold maneuver, shock effect, and exploitation?
  47. If a force is incapable of accomplishing the mission before reaching its culminating point, the commander must do what?
    Plan to phase his operations
  48. What type of offense extends the destruction of the defending force, maintains constant offensive pressure, seeks to disintigrate enemy forces, leave no alternative, and inhibit enemy's ability to reform?
  49. What is the GCE commanders principal tool for the conduct of exploitation?
    The Reserve
  50. Typical missions for an exploitation force include what?
    • Cutting LOCs
    • Isolate/Destroy enemy units
    • Disrupt command and control
  51. What type of offense seeks ANNIHILATION of enemy forces, requires decentralized control and rapid movement, after enemy resistance has broken down?
  52. What phase of the offense starts with recipt of the order and continues until movement to the assembly area?
    Preparation Phase
  53. What phase of the offense begins with crossing the LOD and continues to consolidations of the objective area?
    Conduct Phase
  54. What phase of the offense starts with the capture of the objective and involves taking advantage of any success achieved during the attack?
    Exploitation Phase
  55. What phase of the offense is critical to the fullfillment of the commander's intent?
    Exploitation Phase
  56. What has the most influence on the attackers form of offensive maneuver?
  57. What form of maneuver involves attacking the enemy by the most direct route,attacker possesses overwhealming power against disorganized and lightly held positions, attacks are as rapid as possible, and the goal is penetration?
    Frontal Attack
  58. What form of maneuver should be used whenever possible, strikes the enemy from an unexpected direction, achieves surprise, avoids enemy combat power, and usually requires a supporting attack?
    Flanking Attack
  59. What form of maneuver passes around the enemys principal defensive positions, and generally seeks to strike the enemy where he is weakest, cuts LOCs, and disrupts command and support?
  60. Training and preparation for MOOTW should not detract from the units primary mission of what?
    Training Marines
  61. The first and foremost for success in MOOTW is the application of what?
    Warfighting Skills
  62. One of the puposes of training and education is to instill what in all leaders?
    Sound Judgement
  63. In an uncertain, chaotic world, adaptability is an essential characteristic of what?
    Expeditionary Operations
  64. Time required to train units selected for MOOTW varies according to the mission and unit, for planning puposes how long is it?
    4-6 weeks
  65. What are some pre-deployment individual training subjects for MOOTW?
    • Host and Allied customs
    • Media Relations
    • Antiterrorist Training
    • Civil Disturbance Training
    • Nonlethal Weapons Training
  66. It is the policy of who to make available timely and accurate information so that the public, Congress, and media can understand facts about security and strategy?
  67. Who provides credible info about US Forces via internal channels and the media?
    Public Affairs
  68. Who organizes work to insure info is both truthful and consistent w/ national and operational security?
    Public Affairs
  69. What are 3 responsibilities of public affairs?
    • Internal Command Info
    • Media Relations
    • Community Relations
  70. It is who's responsibility to manage the flow of info that the news media receives and presents to the public?
    The Commander
  71. Reports in the news can significantly affect the execution of military operations, particularly in what?
  72. What is essential to a MAGTF in both planning and execution of operations?
    PA Guidance
  73. What can strongly influence noncombatants in the AO?
    Media Reporting
  74. Who are the MAGTF Commander's experts on media relations?
    Public Affairs
  75. What are the 6 interviewee rights?
    • To refuse to be interviewed
    • To know who the interviewer represents
    • To know the angle of the story
    • To know who else is interviewed
    • To know the parameters
    • To know why your chosen
  76. Who must relieve combat and combat support units of CSS burdens to the greatest extent possible?
    The MAGTF Commander
  77. The logistical system in MOOTW must be what?
    • Responsive
    • Simple
    • Economical
  78. The military provides how many of the 12 emergency support functions of FEMA?
    11 of the 12
  79. MAGTF logisticians will cooperate and support counterdrug and counterterrorist ops. Who is the lead agency for counterterrorism operations?
    Department of Justice
  80. What UN headquarters element has the most responsibility for support of UN forces?
    Field Administration and Logistics Division (FALD)
  81. What is the most efficient option for FALD to use as a support plan for UN forces?
    Option One- to have one nation handle all logistics
  82. Who plays a key role in the transition of functions from MOOTW to war, and vice versa?
  83. Who must be aware that a prolonged state of readiness may drain resources and morale?
    The Commander
  84. What assessment provides the mental process for the continuing reevaluation of the ops environment?
  85. What are some concerns logistical planners must address in transitioning from MOOTW to war?
    • What are the changes
    • Are forces good
    • Is ordnance good
    • Is medical good
    • Are PVOs, NGOs, and Media good
  86. Logistics plans for retrograde of personnel, commanders change compostion of force. Combat forces are changed with what?
    CS and CSS forces
  87. What is characterized by the ability to disable or incapacitate people or things while minimizing harm?
    Nonleathal Weapons
  88. What provides Armed Forces with the means to control refugees, enforce mandates, and protect themselves with the ROEs of operations?
    Nonlethal Capabilities/Weapons
  89. Nonleathal weapons that are fielded require what?
    • Special Training
    • New Doctrine
    • Planning
  90. NLW add flexibility to combat ops and force protection where forces can engage targets with limited risk of what?
    • Casualties
    • Collateral Damage
  91. What are fundamental competencies that enable us to achieve desired operational outcomes?
    Core Capabilities
  92. What are the 2 major categories of core capabilities with nonlethal effects?
    • Counter-personnel
    • Counter-material
  93. What enhances ops by rendering equipment and facilities unusable w/o complete destruction?
    Nonlethal counter-material
  94. What are the 3 limitations of nonlethal weapons?
    • Conceptual
    • Physical
    • Tactical
  95. What are 3 long term goals for terrorism?
    • Topple Governments
    • Influence Top-level Decisions
    • Gain Legitimate Recognition
  96. What has contributed to 67% of all terrorist incidents in the last decade?
  97. What is the perferred terrorist tactic?
  98. What CONUS response phase involves immediate response, MPs, and interior gaurd?
    Phase 1
  99. What CONUS response phase manages resources for long term, and activates the CMT, CMF, and the FBI?
    Phase II
  100. What CONUS response phase involves the NCA and military forces?
    Phase III
  101. What OCONUS response phase involves host nation notification?
    Phase I
  102. What OCONUS response phase begins with host nation or outside US force response?
    Phase II
  103. What OCONUS response phase begins when the host nation or NCA deploy special forces?
    Phase III
Card Set
Comp III 5-10
Comp III, 5-10 note cards