(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DMERWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours.
A.
(1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767,while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, asPIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.
A.(??????What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach atChengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
(Refer to Figure 1-2)
The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
B.
(Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.
A.(????? What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_D
A63m,RVR550m.
B.DA93m,VIS1600m.
C.DA110m,VIS1600m
B
(Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?
A.
(Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimumsand TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to thealternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for
C.
A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normallylimited to
C.
A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test iscompleted in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilotprivileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
B.
A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completedfor an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may beexercised?
B.
A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular typeairplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?
A.
A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or haveattached to it
A.
A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is
A.
A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
B.
A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
B.
A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is
B.
A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructingpassengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabindepressurization, prior to flight conducted above
A.
A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articlesand/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an establishedand approved training program within the preceding
B.
A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have receiveda proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
C.
A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator trainingwithin the preceding
C.
A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes theinstrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if nofurther IFR flights are made?
B.
A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport whichhas no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A.
An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendarmonth, for no more than
A.
An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year,for no more than
C.
An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including asecond-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24consecutive-hour period for not more than
B.
An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including asecond-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24consecutive-hour period for not more than
C.
An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated
A.
An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A.
An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?
B.
An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard?
A.
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is
C.
An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A.
By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
B.
Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has
C.
During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaininginformation on meteorological (??) conditions?
B.
During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?
A.
Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember
B.
Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on eachflight a
C.
Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A.
For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
B.
For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least
B.
For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least
B.
For an airport without air corridor????, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of
C.
For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter
B.
Group II aircraft are
A.
How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is
A.
How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.
How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
C.
If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport maybe located from the departure airport?
B.
If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
C.
If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989,the latter check is considered to have been taken in
A.
If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.
If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
B.
If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft,the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within
A.
If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
C.
In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A.
It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision???? as a result of proximity???? of at least
C.
No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flightplan and
A.
person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
C.
The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to
B.
The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on,the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,and designated pilot in command are
B.
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
B.
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
C.
The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
C.
The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct a respecified in the
B.
The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot)without a rest period is
B.
The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot)without a rest period is
A.
The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
B.
The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
B.
The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is
B.
The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is
B.
The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the
C.
The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g.,turbojet powered) is
C.
The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A.
To be eligible(??) for the practical test for the renewal???? of aCategory II authorization, what recent ? ? ? ? ? instrument approach experience is required?
C.
To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold
A.
To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations,a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.
Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations?
C.
What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A.
What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?
C.
What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
B.
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of anaircraft requiring two pilots?
B.
What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot tore-establish recency of experience?
A.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard?
A.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard?
C.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
C.
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring???? an emergency?
C.
What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A.
What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
B.
When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z,what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
C.
When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for
A.
When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
B.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000meters?
B.
When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
B.
When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?
A.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
B.
When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.
When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
B.
When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?
C.
Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?
A.
Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.
Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?
B.
Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A.
Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic aircarrier flight?
C.
Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?
C.
Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.
Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
C.
Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
C.
Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
B.
Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"?
C.
Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
B.
Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
B.
Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.
Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
A.
Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
B.
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
B.
With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?
A.
????????????????????????????????????
TCAS I provides
A.
Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?
B.
Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
B.
What functions are provided by ILS?
A.
To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on
C.
What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
C.
What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?
C.
What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?
B.
What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum?
A.
What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
C.
What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?
B.
What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
C.
What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
C.
What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A.
What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
B.
What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
C.
What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
B.
What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
B.
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to aVFR runway?
B.
What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?
C.
What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position
A.
What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?
B.
When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A.
When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scaledeflection?
B.
When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.
When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency
C.
When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?
B.
When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
B.
Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?
B.
Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?
A.
Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
A.
Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________.
C.
Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path?
C.
Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
A.
Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
C.
Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
C.
which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
A.
Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
B.
Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"A" respond?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"C" respond?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation"D" correspond?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E"or respond?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1NAV?
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?
A.
(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?
C.
(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20knots)
B.
(Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates
C.
(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"B" correspond?
A.
(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"H" correspond?
C.
(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"I" correspond?
A.
(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation"A" correspond?
B.
(Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glideslope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?
B.
(Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated?
C.
A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which
A.
A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:
B.
A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
C.
A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
C.
Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have
B.
An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
C.
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.
An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?
C.
Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
C.
During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
C.
En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?
B.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.
B.
GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by
C.
Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway,These lines are
B.
Holding position signs have
B.
How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
A.
How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
C.
Identify REIL.
C.
Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems
A.
Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)
C.
Identigy the runway distance remaining markers
C.
If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
B.
If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
C.
If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A.
If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations,the maximum bearing error permissible is
B.
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice,what airspeed indication can be expected?
A.
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should
B.
In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available:
A.
One purpose of high-lift devices is to
C.
What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A.
The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its
C.
The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
B.
The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
C.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilots hould
B.
Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
A.
What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
C.
What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
B.
What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shutdown one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?
C.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
C.
What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?
A.
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
A.
What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
C.
What affects indicated stall speed?
B.
What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?
B.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
B.
What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
C.
What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
B.
What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
B.
What is load factor?
B.
What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?
A.
What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
A.
What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?
A.
What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
C.
What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
C.
What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
B.
What is the purpose of a control tab?
C.
What is the purpose of a servo tab?
B.
What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?
C.
What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotorblade?
C.
what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
B.
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
C.
What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?
B.
What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
B.
What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?
C.
What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be
C.
When are inboard ailerons normally used?
C.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease?