SF 5 level volume 2 URE

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  1. What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force
    objective reasonableness
  2. The three essential areas that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action,
    risk perception, and officer response.
  3. You respond to the base housing area to remove several solicitors. You advised them they can't solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply. What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation
  4. Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is that
    verbal controls
  5. You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels
    professional perception, complaint, and cooperative controls
  6. Deadly force would be authorized to keep
    someone from killing you or doing serious bodily harm
  7. Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources
    vital to national security
  8. Which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force
    Keep someone from breaking into the house
  9. You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at port arms, with the safety selector on
    safe, and your finger not in the trigger guard
  10. Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, your first action is to
    notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post
  11. When the challenging individuals on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials
  12. What is the decision to handcuff or not handcuff apprehended individuals based upon
    sound professional segment and facts of a specific incident
  13. Handcuffing is
    never automatic
  14. How can you prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs
    Loop the cuffs through the suspect's belt at a point below the small of his or her back
  15. The alert stance places your weak side towards and individual and you weapon/strong side 45 degrees away from the suspect, maintaining a distance of at least how many feet
  16. When suspects are cooperative handcuff them
    in the standing position
  17. You would use a standing search on a suspect who is
    not dangerous or violent
  18. What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search
    switch hands on linking chain, place strong had on suspect's shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position
  19. The type of suspect best suited for a prone search is one who
    is physically impaired
  20. In which part of the body do you begin the prone search
    lower body
  21. If you apprehend someone of the opposite sex, you can search the
    outer garments and hand-carried items
  22. Your first task as the transporting officer is to familiarize yourself with
    vehicle, specific security devices, safety, and security
  23. When you arrive at Security Forces Control Center, after transporting someone of the opposite gender, what information must you provide to the controller
    time arrived and ending mileage reading
  24. In which portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques
    resistant (active)
  25. When using the one hand grab breakaway technique in STEP 1 you spread the fingers wide apart, and rotate your thumb hand how many degrees over the suspect's hand
  26. Upon what is your decision to apprehend based
  27. What are the two most important factors to keep in mind when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension
    your position and your attitude
  28. The ultimate goal of using Pressure Point Control Tactics with IKKYO grip techniques to make an apprehension is to
    gain control of your suspect
  29. The IKKYO grip is applied with two directions of pressure. In STEP 3 you apply downward pressure to the elbow with your weak hand while rotating the elbow joint
    rearward while pushing inward on the suspect's hand
  30. In STEP2 of the standing arm bar, what do you place into the small of suspects's back as you move your inside foot to the rear of the suspects feet and step to the left/right
  31. To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspects's
    arm parallel to the ground
  32. The three principally target areas for the baton are arms,
    legs, knees
  33. The baton primarily is used as what type of weapon
  34. For how many minutes can the effects and symptoms of OC pepper spray last when left untreated
  35. OC pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered
  36. Which type of spray pattern does OC pepper spray canister emit
    cone shaped mist
  37. For rifle fighting techniques to be effective they must be applied with
    speed and surprise
  38. The proper way to assume the rifle fighting technique attack position is to place
    the left hand on the rifle hand guard and the right hand on the top of the rifle stock as close to the charging handle as possible
  39. Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarm an opponent
  40. What is an example of a rough grid coordinate
  41. What is an incident involving nuclear weapons
    bent spear
  42. The accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war is called a
  43. The Initial Disaster Control Group and higher headquarters is notified of a grave situation by the
    base's established notification system
  44. How are withdrawal actions accomplished at the scene of a major disaster
    upwind or crosswind direction
  45. What major accident phase is a complex and time-consuming operation
  46. What is the cordon size of an accident involving nuclear weapons
    2000 feet
  47. What is the size of an accident involving biological agents
    2000 feet upwind and crosswind
  48. Regardless of size, who establishes and controls on-base cordons
    fire chief
  49. What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident
    do not answer questions and refer them to public affairs personnel
  50. One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to
    prevent or minimize loss of life and property
  51. Who is the lead agency responsible for containing and resolving terrorist incidents occurring off the installation
    federal bureau of investigation
  52. The principle method for peacefully resolving a high-risk situation is through the use of
    trained negotiators
  53. Once the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene is established by Security Forces personnel, who is allowed inside
    negotiation teams
  54. What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident
  55. Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is
  56. Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of
    physical battering
  57. Non accidental injuries such as burns, spiral fractures of the arms or legs and bruises are
    physical abuse
  58. What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatantly rejecting their child
    emotional maltreatment
  59. When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be
    calm and positive
  60. What form must be filled out in all instances involving and apprehension
    AF Form 3545, incident report
  61. When dealing with a violent disturbance, SF members must immediately
    separate disputants
  62. The difference between a violent dispute and verbal dispute is during a
    verbal dispute a physical assault has not occurred
  63. How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks
  64. At least how many security forces members should be present when entry point checks are conducted
  65. After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and contents, before starting a base entry point check of a vehicle, have the driver
    turn off the engine, have all other occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartments
  66. What must you do once illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check
    stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual
  67. Before conducting a vehicle search, you must have probable cause
    proper search authority, and consent of the person controlling vehicle
  68. What are the two types of vehicle searches
    complete and simple
  69. Which search method is often used to conduct a room, building or small outdoor area search
    zone or sector
  70. Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas
    strip and grid
  71. If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may
    enter the building the prevent injury or damage
  72. Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated
    so you cannot distort each other's impression
  73. What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area
    hood, surgical mask, and eye protection
  74. What is a basic rule when photographing crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available
    photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched
  75. As a security forces member, you testify under oath "I saw the car driven by SMSgt Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road." This is an example of
    direct evidence
  76. What must evidence be to be admissible in court
    competent and relevant
  77. What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to it
    record it in your notes and report
  78. What is the goal of employing blast and fragment mitigation
    reduce the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings
  79. What type of barrier is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues
    jersey and bitburg barriers
  80. Which barrier is intended for use against fragment mitigation
    container style
  81. Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource
    C4 systems of active nuclear missions
  82. Secure PL 1 resources by
    posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational
  83. What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn't fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or a military department
    national defense
  84. What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken
    to assist in recapture and recovery operations
  85. Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time
    camper alert team (CAT)(DOD UCNI0)
  86. Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties
    no-lone zone
  87. Security fences serve as a
    legal and physical demarcation of an area boundary
  88. The security fence height must be how many feet above the ground surface
  89. The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground
    2 inches
  90. What is the minimum number of feet from the base perimeter for locating a restricted area fence containing protection level 1 resources
  91. What type padlock must be used to secure a gate fore a restricted area
    type II and III
  92. Which type of lighting is used to support restricted areas, other than nuclear areas, during contingency operations
    special purpose lighting
  93. At what intervals are restricted area signs displayed along the restricted are boundary
    100 foot
  94. How many lines of detection must SF establish for PLI nonnuclear
    one line at the restricted are boundary and one line at the structure
  95. What community policy philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood
    develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities
  96. The success of any community policing program depends
    on whether or not the chief, security forces is involved
  97. Which agency is responsible for executing Eagle Eyes
    office special investigations
  98. Who is responsible for ensuring the flight is aware of the categories of suspicious terrorist related activities
    flight chief
  99. Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number
    operation identification
  100. SF members should be discreet when using the siren because it
    frequently complicates traffic problems
  101. What would you do if a violator stops in an area that you do not like or is unsafe
    use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go
  102. Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator's vehicle during a traffic stop
    two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left
  103. When contacting the violator during a traffic stop, an exigent circumstance would be speeding to
    get your pregnant wife to the hospital
  104. In the double abreast position, the primary and backup patrol vehicles are positioned double abreast how many feet to the rear of the suspect's vehicle
  105. Within how many hours must you report an accident to which SF did not respond
  106. Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic because
    shouting orders tend to antagonize motorists
  107. What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a 0.10 BAC
  108. Why should the CSF consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts
    so your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders
  109. Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content
  110. After you write a report, the next step would be to
    evaluate the report
  111. Which report is an official/permanent record of events
    AF form 3545, incident report
  112. If your report is non-opinionated, fair, and impartial, you are fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report
  113. Which sentence is an example of an active voice
    Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones
  114. What is used on AF form 3545, incident report, to indicate if an offense was religious, sexual, or racially motivated
    bias motivation codes
  115. What must you do if you use the question and answer technique on the AF form 1168, statement of suspect/witness/complainant
    have the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer
  116. The chain-of-custody on the AF form 52, evidence tag, is initiated by the
    property custodian
  117. What is placed in the badge number block of the   AF form 1109 when no badge is used for an area
  118. DD form 1408, armed forces traffic ticket, is issued to someone who
    committed a moving or nonmoving traffic offense
  119. Who has the authority to void a DD form 1408 armed forces traffic ticket
    issuing security forces member or chief, SF
  120. What is a seizure
    The taking of an item by authorities for evidence at courts-martial
  121. Who can authorize a search
    commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched
  122. What is used to document consent to search if an AF form 1364 is not available
    plain piece of paper
  123. In which section of the DD form 1920, alcohol incident report would you annotate the results of blood alcohol level of the suspect
    section IV, chemical test data
  124. How many copies of the DD form 2708 receipt for inmate or detained person should you prepare
Card Set
SF 5 level volume 2 URE
5 lvl
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