When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned.
Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.
Within how many days from the last day of the month must the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
D. 20.
It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the AMC Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
C. they are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
B. 10.
Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take the data?
D. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
B. Section XII, Remarks.
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to
D. assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
C. At any time.
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters AMC, the unit will
A. conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.
How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and ANG unit, respectively?
B. Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
Which is not a level of war?
C. Offensive.
Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
D. Strategic, operational, and tactical.
Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
C. Deployment and distribution.
Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
C. Strategic.
How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to AMC?
C. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
D. Operational Plan (OPLAN).
Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
C. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
What is the objective of concept planning?
C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?
D. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
A. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
C. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
D. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
A. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
A. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training you should receive?
D. Initial.
Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
B. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
A. 30 days or when changes affect your units overall category level (C-level).
Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
A. AF Form 723.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
D. C-2.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
B. C-3.
If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
B. Smooth AEF execution.
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
A. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan?
D. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
A. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
A. Operational Risk Management (ORM).
What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
C. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
B. Intraservice.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
C. Interservice.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
B. DD Form 1144.
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
C. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because.
B. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
Which product is the primary documents reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
B. Unit Manpower Documents (UMD).
A “1” under the fiscal year and quarter column on the Unit Management Document (UMD) indicates the
A. Specified position is funded for that quarter.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
D. Local time the JI actually started.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
C. A check mark.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
B. To prevent movement and damage during flight.
When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
C. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand receipt basis using
D. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed
D. 100 pounds
When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?
D. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a green sheet request submitted?
D. Load planning.
Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?
C. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as green sheet?
A. A “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?
C. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, pallet identifier.
If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?
A. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
B. TP1; “999”
When you are processing the inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handing Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?
D. Four
When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless
D. It arrives by commercial conveyance.
Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required
D. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is
A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a container of registered mail?
D. Content listing.
After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?
D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals’ signatures, across the tape.
What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?
A. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will
D. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your nest step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?
C. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?
D. Contact mortuary affairs.
Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning may occur?
B. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?
D. At the beginning of each shift.
When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?
B. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as
C. Classified, protected cargo.
“Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could compromise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of the Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material?
C. Nuclear weapons related material.
In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle nuclear weapons related material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?
D. 5%.
During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what mode before load team members approach the aircraft?
D. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew member, load team members use a route that takes them
D. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
During engine running on/off load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before off loading passengers through the crew entrance door?
D. Aircraft commander, command post and ERO functional areas only.
Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you must report to the
B. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself?
C. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
During the concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if
C. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he
C. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do you use?
D. H.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use?
B. T.
If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code do you use?
C. Q.
Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?
C. Side wall seats designed to carry fully equipped paratroopers.
What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?
D. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?
D. Mission route support (MRS).
If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she
B. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already manifested passengers.
If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?
B. Listen.
In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
A. Listening and asking good questions.
Once you receive a mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is to
A. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the downline stations after the
B. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?
B. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is included?
D. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.
C. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?
A. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off load you enter the total
C. Weight of explosives off loaded at your station.
When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
D. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.
When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, the Telecon Coordination block is completed when the
B. Aircraft load message is passed by telephone for short flights.
When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, what is your next step after extracting the necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules?
D. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
When clearing explosives shipments, request port to port clearance at the earliest possible date, but no later than
D. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
When requesting port to port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required on the explosives clearance request?
D. Requested departure date.
Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?
A. Contract Officer Representative (COR).
Which form is used only to report contract discrepancies or violations to higher headquarters?
D. AMC Form 166b, Contract Discrepancy or Violation Notice Civil Airlift.
Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from the Contract Officer Representative (COR) when using the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 166a, Preflight Surveillance Activity Checklist?
B. Critical, major and minor.
When conducting an air terminal inventory, what should you do if you find a discrepancy on a pallet that you cannot correct?
C. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
When conducting an air terminal inventory on loose cargo, in addition to verifying the aerial port of debarkation (APOD), transportation control number (TCN), date received, and air commodity/special handling code, you must also verify the warehouse location,
C. Priority, number of pieces, weight and cube only.
When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Ramstein AB, Germany, which of the following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited handling indicators and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT)?
D. TP1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Hickam AB, Hawaii, which of the following pieces of cargo would you select first based on transportation priority (TP), expedited handling indicators and system entry time (SET) in Greenwich Meantime (GMT) and other factors?
D. Registered mail; TP1; SET: 25 July 09/1645 GMT.
When computing an aircraft critical leg allowable cabin load (ACL), the two numbers you must add to equal the total aircraft weight upon takeoff include the aircraft
A. Operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.
Which activity completes the task of manual cargo selection?
C. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
Which formula do you use to determine the shoring requirements for skidded cargo?
C. L x W x number of skids.
Which formula do you use when determining the shoring requirements for drums with rims
A. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 x 0.785.
When determining shoring requirements, you determine the wheel load for a vehicle by dividing the
D. Axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
When determining shoring requirements for a drum with a rim, after doubling the thickness of the shoring,
B. Add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
When preparing a load plan, which type will units and aerial port personnel use for mobility moves, contingencies and channel missions outside of Air Mobility Command (AMC) if they have the capability?
A. Automated air load planning system (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) Load Plans.
When preparing a load plan, which type do you use for Air Mobility Command (AMC) channel missions?
A. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet.
When preparing a load plan, in how many copies do you prepare and who receives them?
D. Three; two to ATOC personnel and one to ramp services personnel.
When preparing a load plan, after calculating the moments for each piece of equipment, multipallet train or single pallet on the aircraft, you must separately total the
D. Weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
You are preparing manual manifests and have the following cargo for Hickam AFB, Hawaii, and Kadena AB, Japan; general cargo for both locations; registered mail for Hickam; and signature service shipments for both destinations. How many manifests will you prepare?
D. Five.
When preparing a manual manifest, list
B. Pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in transportation control number (TCN) sequence.
When preparing a manual manifest, in the destination block, enter the
A. In the clear destination.
At the end of each month, what happens before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, is forwarded to the records, reports and analysis section?
C. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel complete the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandles Workload, after
D. A load plan is reaccomplished.
When completing the cargo rehandled block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, who is required to review and sign the form after it is complete?
A. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
If you reservice the latrine on an aircraft, which rehandled form do you complete?
C. AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.
When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report does aerial port management review daily?
B. Excessive port hold time (PHT) or system entry time (SET).
Before the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77 is sent to data records for review and filing who must review the form for accuracy and completeness and sign it?
C. The shift supervisor/senior controller of Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).
Data records personnel can file the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure
A. All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
When reviewing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do data records personnel do if they notice any discrepancies?
A. Send the package back to the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) for corrections or correct it themselves.
When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must you do before filing the new Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77?
C. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current
D. Fiscal year plus 1 inactive year.
When maintaining the consolidated flight packages (CFP), consider them as permanent documents and retire them to the base staging area after
