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  1. Define the term personal trainer:
    • Student/empathetic teach of the movement and functions of the human body, the internal and external forces that act upon it and who professionally motivates, plans and monitors the benefits of fitness, exercise and nutrition as it relates to their clients health related goal.
    • A protector of health and well-being.
  2. List the sixteen characteristics that make up a personal trainer:
    • Knowledge
    • Empathy
    • Professionalism
    • Psychology
    • Companionship
    • Communication
    • Visual
    • Auditory
    • Kinesthetic
    • Teacher
    • Patience
    • Consideration
    • Common Sense
    • Versatility
    • Salesmanship
    • Proactive
  3. The greatest legal concerns for a personal trainer are:
    Pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting the results, the development of physical activity recommendations and parameters for training, the instruction and supervision of physical activity, emergency preparations and timely fulfillment of such services.
  4. (T/F) A failure to screen or even perform screening which results in a client injury may actually increase the likelihood of legal claims and suits based upon negligence.
  5. (T/F) Employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees.
  6. (T/F) It is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers, releases and informed consents to meet their legal duties.
  7. (T/F) It is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an independent contractor.
  8. (T/F) Professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality, appearance, presentation, knowledge or hygiene.
  9. Define "vicarious liability" or "respondent superior" and why it is important.
    Employers are vicariously liable, that is, responsible for the negligent acts or omissions of their employees in the course of their employment. For example, if you were to take a client's purse or gym bag to safeguard, both you and and your employer would then be responsible for its contents or any loss.
  10. When a client complains of pain in their joints, is it in your scope of practice to diagnose their condition?
    No, this would not be within your scope of practice to diagnose.
  11. Define exercise physiology:
    Exercise Physiology- the study of the cellular functions in the human body during and after exercise.
  12. What is the basic unit of life?
  13. Name the three energy systems:
    • ATP - Creatine - Phosphate system
    • Glycolysis
    • Aerobic Oxidation
  14. Which energy systems are anaerobic? aerobic?
    • The ATP-CP-System and Glycolysis are considered anaerobic.
    • The Aerobic Oxidation system is aerobic.
  15. (T/F) The term anaerobic means oxygen is not required to function.
  16. Give three examples of activities that primarily require use of the ATP–CP system:
    Weight Lifting, Sprinting, Tennis.
  17. What is Glycolysis? How long does it last?
    Glycolysis is the breakdown of carbohydrate to pyruvate or lactic acid to produce ATP. It lasts ten seconds to three minutes.
  18. What is lactate threshold?
    Lactate threshold- the accumulation or rise in lactate.
  19. What is glucose? Where is it stored? What is it stored as?
    Blood sugar is the main source of anaerobic ATP. It is stored in the Muscles and Liver. It is stored as glycogen.
  20. What is Aerobic Oxidation?
    The aerobic pathway to produce ATP.
  21. What allows the human body to move?
    Skeletal muscle.
  22. What are the three types of connective tissue that encompass muscle?
    Endomysium, Perimysium, Epimysium.
  23. What is a myofibril? What are the two myofilaments that compose a myofibril?
    Myofibril- the smallest unit of a muscle cell. Actin (thin) and Myosin (thick) filaments.
  24. What role does a muscle fiber’s arrangement play?
    Speed of contraction and force output.
  25. What is a hinge joint?
    Hinge- Elbow and Knee, this movement is limited to extension and flexion.
  26. What is a ball and socket joint?
    Ball and Socket- shoulder and hip, this movement provides the widest range of motion in all planes.
  27. What are the two types of muscle fibers? Explain the difference between the two:
    • Slow twitch and fast twitch. Slow twitch—type 1, red fiber, oxidative fibers, fatigue
    • resistant. Fast twitch—type 2, white fibers, divided into type 2a and 2b, type 2a have moderate glycolytic and high oxidative capacities, type 2b have high glycolytic and low oxidative capacities.
  28. What muscle fiber type is predominantly involved in activities such as sprinting, power lifting and the high jump?
    Type 2b.
  29. Define the All or None principle:
    All or None principle- when a myofiber is innervated by a nerve cell, the myofibrils contracts totally or not at all.
  30. What are the three types of contraction? List them in the order of strength from strongest to weakest:
    Eccentric, Isometric, Concentric.
  31. Define concentric strength:
    Concentric strength- the amount of musculoskeletal force to overcome a resistance by a shortening of the muscle fibers.
  32. Define eccentric strength:
    Eccentric strength- the amount of musculoskeletal force displayed when a muscle is lengthened under tension.
  33. What is the function of blood?
    Blood delivered oxygen and nutrients to the cells of the body. Blood also retrieves waste products from the cells and carries them to be expelled or metabolized.
  34. Define periodicity (periodization):
    Periodicity is the gradual cycling of specificity, intensity or volume of training to achieve a specific goal.
  35. What is the overload principle?
    Overload principle- the attempt to challenge the musculoskeletal system with unaccustomed stimulation such as, but not limited to, increased weight, speed, or volume of training (number of sets or reps).
  36. What are the five major factors that effect training?
    Level of fitness, intensity, duration, frequency, genetics.
  37. Explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment:
    • Free weights can be used in several exercises, but not all; selectorized uses only select muscle groups.
    • Free weights are functional, real life easy to transport; selectorized doesn’t require a spotter, safer and easier to change resistance.
    • Free weights require more technique; machines do not fit everyone and can limit ROM.
    • Free weights usually require more stabilization than machines.
  38. What is ATP?
    Adenosine Triphosphate.
  39. What would afferent information be?
    Afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the central nervous system.
  40. What is a motor unit?
    It is a single a-motor neuron and all of the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates.
  41. What are the three types of muscle tissue?
    Skeletal, cardiac and visceral.
  42. What are the prime movers or agonists in a biceps curl?
    Biceps Brachii, brachioradialis and brachialis
  43. What would the training heart rate of 70% be for a 32 year-old female with a resting heart rate of 72?
    153.2 or 153 bpm (beats per minute)
  44. Give a few examples of signs of overtraining.
    Elevated resting heart rate, difficulty sleeping, fatigue, excessive weight-loss, excessive soreness.
  45. What time of the day are the highest levels of blood secretion levels of growth hormone released?
    At night.
  46. What is metabolism?
    Metabolism- is the chemical and physiological process in the body that provides energy for the maintenance of life.
  47. What is the primary fuel source in the human diet? How many calories in one gram of carbohydrate?
    Carbohydrates. There are four calories in every gram of carbohydrate.
  48. Give three examples of a simple carbohydrate. Complex carbohydrate.
    Simple carbohydrates are fruits, syrups, honey, chocolate bar, etc. Complex carbohydrates are potatoes, corn and rice, etc.
  49. According to the Institute of Medicine what percentage of the human diet should consist of carbohydrates?___ -___ %.
  50. What is the Glycemic Index?
    Glycemic Index—is a number (1–100) given to determine the rate at which the carbohydrate is broken down into glucose. The lower the number the longer it takes to break down, and the higher the number the faster.
  51. How many calories are there in one gram of fat?
    There are nine calories per gram of fat.
  52. According to the Institute of Medicine what percentage of the human diet should consist of
    fat? ___ - ___ %.
    20-35% fat, with a balance of saturated, polyunsaturated, and Trans-fatty acids.
  53. (T/F) Fat is the most concentrated source of energy in the diet.
  54. What are the four types of fatty acids?
    Saturated, Monounsaturated, Polyunsaturated, and Trans-fatty acids.
  55. What are the two essential fatty acids?
    Linoleic and Linolenic
  56. What is cholesterol?
    Cholesterol is a lipid or fat-related substance necessary for good health. It is a normal component of most body tissues, especially those of the brain and nervous system, liver, and blood.
  57. What is considered to be a healthy level of cholesterol?
    Below 200 mg/dl.
  58. What is the total cholesterol ratio?
    HDL + LDL / HDL = Total Cholesterol Ratio.
  59. What is the range for normal cholesterol?
    120 to 260 mg/dl.
  60. What is protein? What important role does it play in the body?
    • Protein is a substance containing nitrogen and is one of the most important elements
    • for the maintenance of good health and vitality. It is of primary importance in the growth and development of all body tissues and the major source of building material for muscles, blood, skin, hair, nails, and internal organs, including the heart and brain.
  61. How many calories are in one gram of protein?
    There are four calories in a gram of protein.
  62. According to the Institute of Medicine what percentage of the human diet should consist of protein? ___ - ___ %.
    10-35% of the diet should be protein.
  63. What are vitamins?
    Organic compounds required by the body in minute amounts for physiological maintenance and growth.
  64. Which vitamins are fat soluble?
    A, D, E, K.
  65. What are minerals?
    Inorganic (non-living) nutrients found in the body and in food of organic and inorganic combinations. Approximately 26 minerals have been found to be essential to human nutrition.
  66. What is the most abundant mineral in the body?
  67. How many minerals are required in the diet?
    21 minerals according to the FDA.
  68. What are the only metabolically active tissues in the body?
    Muscles, the brain, and other organs.
  69. What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
  70. Name the nine essential amino acids:
    • Phenylalanine
    • Valine Tryptophan
    • Methionine
    • Threonine
    • Histidine
    • Isoleucine
    • Lysine
    • Leucine
  71. What is the Institute of Medicine's recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
    45-65% carbohydrates, 10-35% protein, 20-35% fat.
  72. What constitutes a serving for pasta from the Food Guide Pyramid?
    1/2 cup of cooked pasta.
  73. What percentage of ingested calcium is absorbed by the human body? What is the RDA for calcium?
    20-30% of ingested calcium is absorbed. 800 mg.
  74. Which vitamins are affected the most due to the industrialization of our food supply?
    Vitamin B.
  75. What are the key antioxidants (vitamins)?
    Beta carotene, vitamin E and C.
  76. What is flexibility?
    Flexibility- the capability of a joint to move freely in every direction or, specifically through a full normal range of motion.
  77. Define the term range of motion:
    ROM- the possible movement about a joint in a static (held) or dynamic (moving) state within the anatomical limits of the joint structure.
  78. List the six factors that can influence or limit your joint mobility:
    Genetics, age, hypokinesis, gender, body type, body temperature.
  79. What is the purpose for stretching?
    To restore muscles that are shortened, tight or weak to their optimum length. Prevent injury.
  80. List three benefits of a good warm-up:
    In the Personal Training Manual see pages 4-5 for the benefits of a good warm-up.
  81. What is a static stretch?
    Holding the body part in a stationary position in order to stabilize the muscles and its connective tissues safely at their greatest length.
  82. What does the abbreviation PNF stand for?
    Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation.
  83. List four benefits of stretching:
    In the Personal Training Manual please see pages 4-6 - 4-7 "Benefits of Stretching."
  84. What problem can excessive stretching lead to?
    Joint instability from over-stretched ligaments.
  85. List three specific reasons you would not stretch a muscle:
    In the Personal Training Manual see pages 4-7 "When Not to Stretch."
  86. What is the most important role a trainer can play when working with a client with AIDS?
    A wellness protector.
  87. How often should you evaluate a client’s ability if they have the AIDS virus?
    On a day-to-day basis.
  88. How does arthritis affect a person’s range of motion?
    By the swelling and inflammation of joint surfaces which cause pain.
  89. What may be a better form of exercise for individuals with arthritis?
    Non weight bearing such as pool exercise or stationary bicycling.
  90. What is the difference between Diabetes Type 1 and Type 2?
    • Type 1- insulin-dependent, juvenile-onset diabetes, pancreatic deficiency, requires insulin injections.
    • Type 2- non-insulin dependent, maturity-onset diabetes, commonly a result of obesity.
  91. When would it be necessary to more closely monitor blood sugar levels with a diabetic?
    When exercising at a higher level of intensity, because there is a greater risk of hypoglycemic reaction, especially 24 to 48 hours after activity.
  92. What should the goal be when working with an obese client?
    To increase basal metabolic rate and expend calories.
  93. Obese people are more likely to develop which diseases?
    Diabetes, cardiovascular disease, high blood pressure, hormonal changes, joint-related problems.
  94. (T/F) Weight bearing exercise is of primary importance to someone with osteoporosis.
  95. (T/F) Resistance exercise increases bone density cross-sectionally.
  96. What issues should a trainer pay close attention to if training a client in the first trimester of pregnancy?
    Attention must be given to heart rate and core temperature elevation. A high core temperature can damage the fetus.
  97. What should be the primary concerns of a pregnant woman who is trying to maintain her exercise habits in the third trimester?
    Hydration, proper nutrition, rest, and relaxation.
  98. (T/F) Stretching can be done with caution in a pregnant woman’s training program.
  99. How many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with Fibromyalgia?
    11 out of 18 tender points for three months or longer.
  100. What is the primary symptom of Fibromyalgia?
    Muscle soreness
  101. What problems can Multiple Sclerosis cause?
    Muscle control, strength, vision, balance, sensation and mental functions.
  102. What causes Multiple Sclerosis?
    Multiple Sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequent disruption of the nerve impulse flow.
  103. What should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with Multiple Sclerosis?
    Exercise programs should be designed to avoid over heating.
  104. What response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a Beta Blocker?
    A client taking Beta Blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate.
  105. What response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is taking a Calcium Channel Blocker?
    A client taking a Calcium Channel Blocker can have a lower blood pressure when performing a submaximal exercise test.
  106. What causes Lupus?
    The exact pathology of lupus is unknown.
  107. Define the sagittal plane. Give an example of a movement that takes place in the sagittal plane:
    Splits the body into right and left halves. Elbow flexion/standing bicep curls.
  108. What is the frontal plane? Give an example of a movement that takes place in the frontal plane:
    Splits the body into front and back halves. Later flexion of trunk.
  109. What is the horizontal plane? Give an example of a movement that takes place in the horizontal plane:
    Splits body into top and bottom halves. Trunk rotation.
  110. What is scapular abduction (protraction)? Give an example:
    Joint movement away from anatomical position in the frontal plane or in the transverse place, when joint motion is moving from a position of adduction to, or past neutral.
  111. What is scapular adduction (retraction)? Give an example:
    Joint movement returning to anatomical position or crossing the midline of the boy in the frontal plane or the transverse plane.
  112. Define the term superior:
    The position above.
  113. (T/F) The term proximal means away from the center of the body.
    False. Proximal is nearest to the trunk.
  114. Define the term superficial.
    Near the surface.
  115. (T/F) The term unilateral means one side.
  116. Define the term flexion. Give one example.
    Flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal plane, or if past neutral in a position of extension, is moving back to neutral. Elbow Flexion- curl.
  117. Define the term extension. Give one example.
    Extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to, or past anatomical neutral in the sagittal plane. Elbow extension / triceps push-down.
  118. What are the three major components of the musculoskeletal system?
    Bones, skeletal muscle, connective tissue.
  119. What are the two parts that make up the skeletal system?
    Axial and appendicular
  120. (T/F) The axial skeleton consists of the upper and lower extremities.
    False. The axial skeleton consists of the head, neck and trunk.
  121. What are the two most important functions of the skeletal system?
    Leverage and support.
  122. What is a lever arm?
    A lever arm is the distance from the axis or fulcrum to the point at which a force is applied to the lever.
  123. What is a fulcrum?
    The pivot point of a lever.
  124. Name the three types of lever systems:
    First class. Second Class. Third Class.
  125. What is the most rigid connective tissue found in the human body?
  126. What is trabeculae?
    Plates of calcified tissue that make up the innermost layer of bone.
  127. What is the strong fibrous membrane that offers strength and stiffness to the skeleton?
  128. Give examples of a long bone:
    Humerus, radius, ulna, femur, fibula, tibia, metatarsals, metacarpals, phalanges.
  129. Give examples of flat bones:
    Ribs, ilium, sternum, scapula.
  130. What are irregular bones?
    The bones found in the skull, pelvis, vertebrae and consist of spongy bone with thin compact bone on the exterior.
  131. What is Wolff’s Law?
    Every change in the form and function of a bone or of their function alone is followed by certain definitive changes in their architecture and equally definite secondary alternation in their external conformation, in accordance with mathematical laws.
  132. (T/F) One of the benefits of exercise is that it helps increase bone mass.
  133. (T/F) The two categories of joints are synarthroses (non-synovial joints) and diarthroses (synovial joints).
  134. The cartilaginous joints are made of what cartilage?
    Fibrocartilage or hyaline growth cartilage.
  135. (T/F) In diarthrodial (synovial) joints, the ends of the bones are free to move in relation to one another.
  136. All synovial joints have what five characteristics?
    Joint capsule, a joint cavity enclosed by the joint capsule, a synovial membrane that lines the inner surface of the capsule, synovial fluid that forms a film over the joint surfaces, hyaline cartilage that covers the joint surfaces.
  137. What are proximal joints? Give examples:
    Are the most proximal and the foundation for the extremities (shoulder/hip). These joints generally have the greatest freedom of movement and have a great deal of muscular support in fan-shaped arrangements.
  138. What are the distal joints? Give examples:
    Complex in structure (wrist, ankle) with a variety of motions available with intricate control.
  139. Define the term agonist. Give an example:
    A muscle that is most effective in causing a certain joint movement. Biceps brachii in a bicep curl.
  140. What opposes the agonist?
  141. What is a synergist? Give an example:
    A synergist is when two muscles have a common joint action but also have a joint action that opposes each other. The synergy occurs during the common joint action. Example: Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi during internal rotation of the humerus.
  142. (T/F) A stabilizer is a muscle or set of muscles that steady or support a joint so another muscle or sets of muscles may move a portion of the body.
  143. Which muscle dorsiflexes the foot?
    Tibialis Anterior
  144. What is the action of the rectus abdominis?
    Compresses the abdomino-pelvic cavity; and flexes the vertebral column.
  145. What is the action of the transversus abdominis?
    Compresses the abdomino-pelvic cavity.
  146. What is the origin of the serratus anterior?
    Out surface of the first nine ribs.
  147. What is the insertion of the pectoralis major?
    Greater tubercle of the hummerus.
  148. What nerve innervates the deltoid?
    Axillary nerve.
  149. What is the insertion of the biceps brachii?
    Tuberosity of the radius.
  150. What is the origin of the brachioradialis?
    Lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus.
  151. What is the insertion of the psoas major? Actions?
    Lesser trochanter of the femur. Flex the thigh; flex the trunk on the femur.
  152. What makes up the posterior oblique system?
    The posterior oblique system consists of the latissimus dorsi, gluteus maximus and the intervening thoraco-lumbar fascia.
  153. What makes up the anterior oblique system?
    The anterior oblique system consists of the obliques and the contralateral adductor muscles and the intervening abdominal fascia.
  154. What makes up the deep longitudinal system?
    The deep longitudinal system includes the erector spinea, the deep lamina of the thoraco-lumbar fascia, the sacrotuberus ligament and the biceps femoris muscle.
  155. What muscles make up the inner unit?
    The inner unit consists of the multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm and the pelvic floor.
  156. What are the six steps to any resistance exercise?
    • What is the motion to be performed?
    • Determine the direction of resistance.
    • Determine the starting position.
    • Monitor joint position/stabilization.
    • Monitor the path of motion.
    • Determine and monitor the range of motion.
  157. What are the three types of range of motion?
    Passive, active, resisted.
  158. Define active range of motion:
    Your muscular ability to move.
  159. What are the five sections that make up the vertebral column?
    Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx.
  160. How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?
    33 vertebrae
  161. List the four different spinal motions.
    Flexion, extension, lateral flexion, rotation.
  162. What is the number one cause of back pain?
    Long periods out of a neutral spine.
  163. How much does the intradiskal pressure increase when someone goes from a standing position to a seated position?
    ___ - ___%
  164. (T/F) When training the rectus abdominis you can’t create regional emphasis on upper or lower abs.
    False. You can create regional emphasis because of segmental nerve innervation.
  165. What muscles play a role in stabilizing the trunk?
    Back extensors, lateral flexors, anterior abdominals.
  166. What should you look for when assessing someone’s posture?
    In the Person Training Manual see page 8-6 in "standard posture".
  167. When beginning a strength program what should precede mobility?
    Stability before mobility.
  168. What is the law of facilitation?
    When an impulse passes once through a given set of neurons to the exclusion of others it will tend to do so on a future occasion
  169. What is the goal of the seated posture trainer exercise?
    To teach proper body alignment and increase postural control and strength.
  170. What is abdominal coordination?
    The ability to stabilize the pelvis and lumbar curvature while simultaneously raising and lowering the leg (s).
  171. What is the key to using the back extension machine?
    The key is control. Do not allow the machine to push you into a slouched position (spinal flexion).
  172. What is the shoulder girdle composed of? What is the shoulder girdle a foundation for?
    Clavical and scapula. The foundation for the head, neck and upper extremity.
  173. What are the motions of the shoulder girdle?
    Elevation, depression, abduction, adduction
  174. What is scapulohumeral rhythm?
    The relationship between the should joint and the scapulothoracic joint. Two degrees of the should motion for every one degree of the scapulothoracic motion.
  175. What is considered to be normal ROM in shoulder flexion? ___ - ___ degrees.
    160-180 degress
  176. Name the SITS muscles:
    Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.
  177. What are the three divisions of the pectoralis major?
    Clavicular, sternal, and costal fibers.
  178. When performing a lateral raise what is the prime mover?
  179. What is the strongest, heaviest, and longest bone in the body?
  180. What is the strongest, heaviest, and longest bone in the body?
  181. Each hip bone is fused by which three bones? ____, _____ & _____.
    Ilium, ischium, and pubis.
  182. What is the true function of the hip abductors?
    To maintain pelvic stability in a single leg stand.
  183. What bones make up the knee joint?
    The knee is formed by the articulation of the distal femur and proximal tibia. Together they form the tibia-femoral (or knee) joint.
  184. How is lower extremity alignment accomplished?
    By ensuring that the femur is directed toward the toes.
  185. The ankle is a hinge joint formed by what bones?
    The tibia, fibula, and talus.
  186. What two muscles make up the calf muscles?
    Gastrocnemius and soleus
  187. What action does the gastrocnemius perform?
    Flexes the leg; and plantar flexes the foot.
  188. When performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up with the:
    Axis of rotation of the knee.
  189. (T/F) Before a client engages in physical activity the trainer should look at any orthopedic concerns the client might have.
  190. (T/F) Before loading a client the trainer should ensure the client knows how to perform the movement properly.
  191. What should the client concentrate on in the first 6-9 months of training?
    Developing basic strength, endurance, flexibility, efficient connective and supportive systems, stabilization, and proper movement patterns.
  192. Define the term frequency:
    The number of training sessions per week, month, year, etc.
  193. What is tensile loading?
    The amount of tension developed in the muscle fibers when loaded.
  194. What is relative strength?
    The maximum force the muscles can generate in relation to your body weight. This type of strength is important for individuals who have move their entire body weight like gymnastics.
  195. When do slow twitch fibers fatigue?
    Begin fatiguing at six seconds and fully fatigues at 3-5 minutes.
  196. The tempo of movement determines what?
    The load, amount of tension developed, use of mechanical energy.
  197. When is the stretch shortening cycle?
    The sequence of eccentric, isometric, and concentric action. When the action of eccentric to concentric takes places, the muscles is stretched, and when the muscle is stretched it stores elastic energy. This stored energy provides a more forcible, concentric lift.
  198. How much time under tension is needed to receive a maximal strength/hypertrophy training effect? ___ - ___ seconds TUT.
    20-40 seconds TUT.
  199. If the tempo prescribed is a 4:1:2:1, which number is eccentric? Isometric, Concentric?
    _____ is eccentric, _____ is isometric and _____ is concentric.
    4 is eccentric, 1 is isometric and 2 is concentric.
  200. (T/F) Training should always start with fast movement and progress to slower movements.
    False, training should always start with slow controlled movements and progress to faster movements.
  201. (T/F) Increased torque and joint loading occur when fast movements are used.
  202. What training effect will a client receive if they train with a 1–6 repetition load? Adaptation?
    Neutral training effect. Relative strength gain, adaptation.
  203. What is a metabolic adaptation?
    Is a change in structure, e.g. increase in the size of muscle fibers and connective tissues, increase in the size and function of blood vessels, and increased substrate stores, giving a fuller look.
  204. (T/F) There is an inverse relationship between sets and reps. As the number of reps decrease, the number of sets increase and vice versa.
  205. What is the rationale behind performing six different exercises per body part but only doing 1 set per exercise?
    Allows for the greatest variety in overloading various lines of movements and joint angles, but doesn't specialize in the skill of any one exercise.
  206. How long does it take for a hypertrophy response to occur? ___ - ___ weeks.
    6-8 weeks.
  207. (T/F) Smaller muscle groups take more time to recover.
    False, larger muscle groups take more time to recover.
  208. How long should rest periods last if working above 90% of maximum? Approximately ___ - ___ minutes.
    Approximately 3-5 minutes.
  209. (T/F) Larger individuals require longer rest periods because their bodies have to work harder to support the greater mass.
  210. What occurs if the individual is given too long a rest period?
    Core body temperature will decrease, loss of performance, risk of injury is increased.
  211. What is exercise selection dependent on?
    The client's goal.
  212. Why is it important to use unilateral movements?
    To restore balance in size or strength within the muscular system.
  213. When should complex exercises be performed?
    They should be performed early in the workout when energy levels are highest because they have a high technical component and require high levels of concentration and coordination.
  214. (T/F) The exercises done at the beginning of the week and the beginning of the workout receive the best effort and the best result because the muscles are being trained under full recovery.
  215. What is alternating periodization?
    Involves alternating between volume and intensity. This type of program avoids the detraining issues that are involved with linear periodization. This type of periodization is more suitable for the advanced individual.
  216. (T/F) The client should always build off of a solid foundation first. The client should begin with a base conditioning program and progress into later phases of conditioning.
  217. Why is it important to do fitness testing?
    To ensure a proper exercise program is prescribed.
  218. How long should you take a client’s resting heart rate? ____ seconds.
    60 seconds
  219. What is the most accurate technique for counting heart rate at rest and during exercise?
    Chest auscultation using a stethoscope.
  220. What artery is the best to palpate when checking heart rate?
    The radial artery located at the wrist.
  221. What is considered a normal resting heart rate? ___ - ___ bpm.
    60-100 beats per minute. However, a highly trained athlete can have a resting heart rate as low as 40 bpm.
  222. What is considered to be a normal blood pressure reading? ___ / ___ mm/Hg.
    120/80 mm/Hg
  223. (T/F) If a blood pressure measurement needs to be repeated, you should wait approximately 60 seconds or more with the cuff completely deflated to allow circulation to return to normal.
  224. What does the term body composition mean?
    Dividing the body into two components, fat weight and lean body weight.
  225. A high fat weight is a risk factor for what?
    Disease, cancer, diabetes,  and other health problems.
  226. How do you calculate body mass index?
    BMI- divide the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared (kg/m2)
  227. What determines how an individual’s subcutaneous fat levels are distributed?
    Age, gender, body type, and activity levels.
  228. Where do most females store fat?
    Triceps, hips and thighs
  229. The waist-to-hip-ratio is effective in measuring what?
    Shows the individual's fat distribution as well as their risk factors of mortality and morbidity.
  230. (T/F) In the waist-to-hip-ratio, the hip measurement should be smaller in circumference than the waist measurement.
    False. The waist measurement should be smaller in circumference than the hip measurement.
  231. What is a normal waist-to-hip-ratio for a male between the ages of 17–39?
  232. What is the estimated accuracy range of hydrostatic weighing? ___%
  233. Describe how an individual would take a skin fold measurement on the axilla.
    Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process.
  234. What is the standard three site skin fold formula for a man?
    Chest, abdomen, thigh
  235. The bioelectrical impedance analysis technique is based on what assumption?
    Tissues high in water content will conduct electrical currents with less resistance than those with little water. Because adipose tissue contains little water, fat will impede the flow of electrical current.
  236. What is the estimated accuracy range of BIA? ___%.
  237. When using the BIA technique how long should a person fast before being tested?
    Eating and drinking should be avoided for four hours prior to testing.
  238. What is the purpose of the sit and reach test?
    The test measures flexibility of the erector spinae muscles, hamstrings, upper back and calves.
  239. What position creates maximal compressive forces on the intervertebral disks?
    A seated fully flexed position.
  240. How do you score the client on the sit and reach test?
    The client's score is the best of three and can be compared to the norms of their sex and age.
  241. What is the assumption of the three-minute step test?
    The assumption with the step test is that if a client has a lower recovery heart rate one-minute after completing the test, it is assumed that the client is in better physical condition and has a higher VO2 MAX.
  242. How long should you count the client’s heart rate once they have completed the three-minute step test?
    ___ seconds.
    Count the beats for one full minute.
  243. How many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the three-minute step test? ___ bpm.
    96 beats per minute
  244. The push up test measures? In what muscles?
    Upper body endurance. Pectoralis musculature, anterior deltoid, and triceps brachii.
  245. When is the push up test considered to be complete?
    When the client can no longer perform another repetition or correct alignment can no longer be maintained.
  246. The sit-up test measures? In what muscles?
    The endurance of the trunk muscles. Rectus abdominis, internal and external obliques.
  247. The crunch test has recently been developed as:
    A safer alternative to determined endurance of the trunk musculature.
  248. Weak abdominal musculature is common with individuals who experience?
    Low back pain.
  249. (T/F) If a client has chest pain you should call 911.
  250. (T/F) A fitness professional should diagnose injuries.
    As a fitness professional you do not have the qualification to diagnose injuries nor are you allowed.
  251. What does the acronym RICE mean?
    Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
  252. Why do you apply ice to an injury?
    Ice causes vaso-constriction. Decreasing the blood flow to the injured area resulting in decreased swelling.
  253. How long should you apply ice to an injury?
    Apply for 15-20 minutes at a time, every 1-2 hours during the first 48-72 hours after the injury.
  254. Why should you elevate the injured part?
    Elevation of the injured part above the level of the heart uses gravity to help drain the excess fluid and decreases swelling.
  255. What are the symptoms for heat exhaustion?
    Pale, clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, weakness, headache or nausea, cramps in abdomen or limbs.
  256. What is the treatment for a contusion?
    Apply ice.
  257. What is a sprain?
    Trauma to a joint capsule or ligament.
  258. What is the treatment for a strain?
    • R est
    • I ce
    • C ompression
    • E levation
  259. What are the symptoms of fainting?
    Light-headedness, dizziness, pale, light sweat.
  260. What is the treatment for a client with hypoglycemia?
    Call 911, rest, give fluid with sugar (fruit juice) or candy bar is conscious.
  261. How much does a standard seven foot Olympic bar weigh? ___ lbs.
    45 lbs
  262. How much does the Cybex smith machine bar weigh? ___ lbs.
    15 lbs. because it has been counter-balanced.
  263. What are the disadvantages of the Cybex equipment line?
    Requires technique, some of the lever arms and stability features are too long or too far away and the strength profiles not always optimal for two joint muscles.
  264. What is the name of the largest treadmill making company in the world?
    Star Trac
  265. What is the benefit of a recumbent bike?
    Same cardiovascular benefits but less stressful to the system resulting in less perceived exertion because of easy blood return.
  266. What much does an e-z bar weigh? ___ lbs.
    25 lbs
  267. What is unique about the Cybex squat press?
    Great strength profile, weight is closer to the user for less momentum and safety, easy to load the weight because it is lower to the ground, moving platform keeps a solid contact surface with the feet.
  268. What are the advantages of Hammer Strength equipment?
    Isolateral, unilateral, or bilateral, movement based rather than muscle based, safety; no moving weight stack to get caught it, starting weight can be as low as 0 lbs., because it is not selectorized, you may increase in smaller increments, handles are designed to minimize stress on the wrist joints, converging and diverging axes.
  269. What is the number one killer in America?
    Cardiovascular disease.
  270. What percentage of American adults get enough exercise to achieve cardiovascular fitness? ___%.
  271. (T/F) Regular physical activity has been shown to improve self image
  272. (T/F) Regular physical activity improves energy levels and decreases stress.
  273. (T/F) Exercise has no effect on high blood pressure or diabetes.
    False. Exercise has been shown to lower blood pressure and decrease the likelihood of someone developing diabetes.
  274. (T/F) Physical activity builds healthy bones, muscles and joints, and reduces the risk of colon cancer.
  275. (T/F) Physical activity needs to be strenuous to achieve health benefits.
    False. People can improve their health by becoming even moderately active on a regular basis.
  276. What percentage of adults are not active at all? ___%.
  277. (T/F) Female adolescents are much less physically active than male adolescents.
  278. (T/F) In high school, enrollment in daily P.E. classes dropped from 42% in 1991 to 25% in 1995.
  279. (T/F) Before you set up your company you should see an accountant or lawyer for advice as to what is the best option for you.
  280. (T/F) If you’re going to run your own business, it is a good idea to accept credit cards.
  281. What are the four keys to handling objections?
    Acknowledge, isolate, overcome, close.
  282. What is hard selling?
    You are trying to collect money immediately. Your goal is to not to let them walk out the door without buying something.
  283. (T/F) Every trainer should have some kind of introductory special.
  284. What are the five main points to look for on the client profile?
    Goal, exercise experience, medical history, job or career, and their signature.
  285. (T/F) You should never call and confirm your appointments.
    False, you should always call and confirm your appointments.
  286. When you try to sell someone your service, always focus on their what?
  287. What form should you always make sure the client signs prior to engaging in activity?
    Client Profile. Make sure they sign the release of liability prior to exercising. If the don't sign it, then don't train them.
  288. What are the three means of communication?
    Visual, auditory and kinesthetics
  289. (T/F) It is important for clients to use the mirrors to monitor technique.
  290. Two subjects to refrain from speaking with your clients are:
    Religion and Politics
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