EMS Exam 5 Questions

Which rescuer, relative to the patient, is typically responsible for coordinating patient movement?

Unconscious patients who are breathing adequately should be placed in the _____________ position.

A. recovery
B. supine
C. unconscious
D. prone

It is best to use the muscles in your back rather than the muscles in your legs when lifting a patient.

A. True
B. False

Which of the following situations does not require an emergency movement of a patient?

A. Bad weather conditions are present.
B. The accident scene cannot be protected.
C. There is a danger of fire, explosion, or structural collapse.
D. Hazardous materials are present.

Which lift should be used for patients without spinal trauma who are lying supine on the ground?

A patient who has fallen from a tree should be moved using a:

A. portable stretcher.
B. long backboard.
C. stair chair.
D. wheeled ambulance stretcher.

Short backboard devices are intended for use with which type of patient?

A. patients in a sitting position
B. patients in a supine position
C. patients in a prone position
D. patients in a standing position

Once a cervical collar is placed on a trauma patient, it is no longer necessary to maintain manual stabilization of the patient’s head.

A. True
B. False

How many providers should be available to properly log roll a patient?

A. two
B. three
C. one
D. four

Describe the steps in preparing a blanket roll.

Which of the following can be used to move a patient who is too heavy for a rescuer to lift or carry?

A. clothes or blanket drag
B. arm-to-arm drag 
C. fire fighter drag
D. all of the above

The two-person extremity:

A. uses the patient's arms and legs.
B. requires the use of equipment.
C. allows the two rescuers to stand facing each other.
D. all of the above.

The two-person chair carry:

A. requires the use of a folding chair.
B. allows the patient to hold on to the chair.
C. should not be used on stairways.
D. all of the above.

Transfer of a patient from a bed to a stretcher:

A. must be used with caution since it could result in poor body mechanics.
B. requires three rescuers.
C. should be used only when a patient is unconscious.
D. all of the above.

A small portable device used for transporting patients in a sitting position is called a:

A. pack-strap.
B. stair chair.
C. reclining stretcher.
D. scoop stretcher.

A patient who is in a sitting position and has suffered possible head or spine injuries will probably need a:

A. stair chair.
B. scoop stretcher.
C. long backboard.
D. short backboard device.

Both hard and soft cervical collars provide sufficient support for trauma patients. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

A patient should be transported on a backboard:

A. following gunshot wounds to the trunk.
B. only when he or she is unconscious.
C. without a cervical collar.
D. all of the above.

The head and neck of a patient on a backboard:

A. do not need further immobilization.
B. may be immobilized with a short backboard.
C. may be immobilized using foam blocks or a blanket roll.
D. all of the above.

The rules of good body mechanics include:

A. know your limitations.
B. maintain firm footing.
C. use your leg muscles to lift.
D. all of the above.

Unconscious patients who have not sustained injury should be placed in the recovery position to help keep the airway open. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

Log rolling requires a team of __________ rescuers.

A. five
B. two
C. four
D. six

Upon arrival at the scene of an accident or medical emergency:

A. consider the need for additional help.
B. park your vehicle as close as possible to patients who may need to be transported.
C. begin treatment of patients immediately.
D. both A and B.

The landing zone for a helicopter at an emergency scene:

A. should be as flat as possible.
B. may be determined by EMRs.
C. needs to be free of loose debris and obstacles.
D. all of the above.

You should park your emergency vehicles so they protect the scene and warn oncoming traffic. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

The job of the dispatcher is to:

A. obtain information from the caller.
B. instruct a caller on lifesaving techniques
C. obtain a call-back number from the caller.
D. all of the above.

When driving an emergency response vehicle, the use of emergency lights and audible warning devices gives you the right of way. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

Which of the following statements regarding loading patients into a helicopter is FALSE?

A. Secure all loose clothing, sheets, and instruments.
B. You may approach the helicopter at any time after it has landed as long as you approach from the front.
C. It is more difficult to load a helicopter stretcher than it is to load an ambulance stretcher.
D. None of the above.

Place the following steps of response in the correct order.

A. postrun activities
B. arrival at the scene
C. response to the scene
D. dispatch
E. transferring care of the patient to other EMS personnel

When preparing for a call, which of the following equipment should be included in your EMR life support kit?

A.   patient examination equipment
B.   bandaging and dressing equipment
C.   extrication equipment
D.   all of the above

What is the minimum information that should be gathered by dispatch?

What should you remember about emergency warning devices during your response to the scene?

A.   They guarantee the right of way.
B.   They request the right of way.
C.   They should be used for every emergency response.
D.   None of the above

When parking your emergency vehicle at the scene of a crash, you should:

A. position your vehicle to block all traffic on the road.
B. position your vehicle in a safe location.
C. park as far from the crash as possible.
D. position your vehicle against a crash vehicle to provide stabilization.

When transferring care of the patient to other EMS personnel, you should:

A.   tell them what care you have already provided.
B.   ask them if they have any questions for you.
C.   offer to assist them in caring for the patient.
D.   all of the above.

Which postrun activities must be completed before you can resume your regular duties?

Helicopters can respond quickly above traffic congestion and wilderness areas.

A.  True
B.  False

The main rotor of the helicopter spins at more than ______ and may be just ______ above the ground.

A.   300 rpm; 4′
B.   200 rpm; 3′
C.   200 rpm; 4′
D.   300 rpm; 3′

Most civilian helicopters need a landing zone of at least:

A.   25′ ´ 25′.
B.   50′ ´ 50′.
C.   150′ ´ 150′.
D.   100′ ´ 100′.

The "throw" step of the water rescue sequence can be used:

A. by rescuers who cannot swim.
B. if the victim is in a swimming pool.
C. if the victim is too far out to be reached.
D. all of the above.

If no buoy is available to throw to a water rescue victim, you can use a:

A. styrofoam cooler.
B. spare tire.
C. rope.
D. all of the above.

In emergency situations, a patient can be removed from the water using:

A. six people.
B. a chaise lounge.
C. a backboard.
D. all of the above.

If you must go out on the ice to rescue a victim:

A. kneel or sit on the ice to inch your way out.
B. carry a blanket with you.
C. secure yourself to shore with a rope around your waist.
D. all of the above.

Rescue situations involving confined spaces are hazardous because there may be insufficient oxygen or a poisonous gas. 

TRUE
FALSE
True False

The four steps to water rescue are reach, throw, row, and go. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

Below-ground confined spaces include:

A. manholes.
B. old mines.
C. wells.
D. all of the above.

ALL confined spaces can support life without a self-contained breathing apparatus. 

TRUE 
FALSE
True False

Providing initial emergency care to victims in water rescue situations consists of:

A. removing patients.
B. calling for help.
C. establishing responsiveness and supporting ABCs.
D. both A and B.

As an EMR, your first goal in special rescue situations is to:

A. prevent bystanders from getting injured.
B. rescue the patient.
C. assess the scene to ensure your safety.
D. call for additional resources.

List five of the common hazards found at a motor vehicle crash scene.

List, in order, the four steps you should follow when attempting water rescue.

Initial treatment of a person in the water includes all of the following except:

A. opening the airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
B. performing chest compressions.
C. performing rescue breathing.
D. supporting the back and neck and turning the patient face up.

When should you expect a spinal cord injury in a water rescue situation?

A. when the patient is unresponsive
B. when the patient is responsive and complaining of numbness and tingling
C. when the patient is responsive and complaining of neck pain
D. all of the above

Both air embolisms and decompression sickness are caused by:

A. air bubbles released in the body.
B. the patient holding his or her breath while coming to the surface.
C. running out of air while diving.
D. diving in water that is too cold.

If you must go onto ice to attempt a rescue, you should try to spread your weight over a wider area.

A. True
B. False

Besides drowning, what is the major concern associated with ice rescue situations?

A. hypothermia
B. getting the victim’s car off the ice
C. lacerations from broken ice
D. slips and falls

Emergencies involving farm silos should be treated as which type of incident?

A. hazardous material
B. confined space
C. mass casualty
D. routine medical emergency

Once you determine an accident scene involving a bus is safe, what should your first step be?

A. Initiate the START triage system.
B. Choose a victim and begin treating him or her.
C. Stop all traffic on the road to avoid hampering the police investigation.
D. Try to remove as many victims from the bus as possible.

What is another term for the area contaminated by hazardous materials?

A. cold zone
B. hot zone
C. neutral zone
D. warm zone

What is the purpose of triage?

A. to ensure that the most critical patients receive treatment first
B. to convey to others how many patients require treatment and the severity of their injuries
C. to transport patients to the appropriate facility
D. all of the above

The first step in the START system is to:

A. ask each patient if he or she can walk to a different area.
B. instruct patients who can walk to move to a specified area.
C. walk among the injured patients.
D. begin tagging patients.

What is a weapon of mass destruction?

A secondary explosive device refers to a device that is intended to:

A. defuse the initial explosive device.
B. minimize the initial explosion.
C. make the initial explosion more intensive.
D. explode when rescuers have arrived on the scene.

Pulmonary agents used in weapons of mass destruction tend to cause which sign or symptom?

A. bleeding in the lungs
B. shortness of breath
C. blistering on the skin
D. vomiting

What does each letter in the acronym SLUDGE represent?

S _______________
L _______________
U _______________
D _______________
G _______________
E _______________

What is the EMR’s primary responsibility when responding to a report of a nerve agent release?

A. Ensure personal safety so as not to become contaminated.
B. Determine exactly which nerve agent has been released.
C. Administer Mark 1 kits to the incoming rescuers.
D. Remove victims from the scene.

What is the incubation period for biologic agents?

A.  the time it takes for the number of organisms to double
B.  the time it takes for the agent to enter a human
C. the time it takes for the disease to respond to treatment
D.  the time it takes from exposure to showing signs and/or symptoms

What is a dirty bomb?

Hazardous materials are substances that are:

A. toxic.
B. flammable.
C. explosive.
D. all of the above.

The Emergency Response Guidebook, published by the US Department of Transportation:

A. lists the most common hazardous materials.
B. describes the emergency care of patients who have become ill or injured after being exposed to hazardous materials.
C. should be carried in all emergency response vehicles.
D. all of the above.

A mass-casualty incident is an incident involving 10 or more people. 

TRUE
FALSE
True False

When triaging patients, those who are able to get up and walk to a specified area are classified as: 

A. Priority Four.
B. Priority Three.
C. Priority Two.
D. Priority One.

Terrorism is most accurately defined as:

A. a spontaneous event that occurs when a group of radicals becomes enraged at a political decision.
B. a preplanned sequence of events specifically designed to create mass death and destruction.
C. the preplanned and well-funded attack on a government building in order to send a specific message.
D. the systematic use of violence by a group to intimidate a population or government to achieve a goal.

A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as:

A. any device that is used to create panic and intimidation on its target, but a limited number of deaths.
B. a chemical, biologic, or radiologic agent that is intended to kill at least 100,000 human beings.
C. any agent designed to cause mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure.
D. a specific agent or device used to completely destroy a country's important structures.

Ecoterrorists would MOST likely target:

A. a large bridge.
B. automobile dealerships and housing developments.
C. the Washington Monument.
D. underground tunnels.

The Statue of Liberty would be a target for terrorists because of its:

A. monetary value.
B. ease of destruction.
C. symbolic value.
D. geographic location.

The leading cause of death in the United States is:

A. heart disease.
B. terrorism.
C. cancer.
D. homicide.

An example of an incendiary device is a:

A. metabolic agent.
B. bacterium.
C. simple virus.
D. pipe bomb.

A nerve agent is a form of:

A. chemical warfare.
B. nuclear warfare.
C. metabolic warfare.
D. biologic warfare.

The acronym SLUDGE is used to describe symptoms from which type of poisoning?

A. organophosphates
B. nerve agents
C. blister agents
D. both A and B