What is the greatest cause of death in trauma patients?
B. shock
Red blood cells:
B. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Shock, or failure of the circulatory system, is caused by:
D. all of the above.
Shock as a result of capillary expansion may be caused by:
D. all of the above.
Anaphylactic shock:
D. all of the above.
General treatment for shock includes:
C. maintaining the patient's ABCs and checking them every five minutes.
The EMR may treat a patient who exhibits signs and symptoms of shock by:
B. maintaining the body temperature of the patient.
Treatment of a patient with spinal shock includes:
D. all of the above.
Treatment of shock caused by external blood loss includes which of the following steps?
B. Apply direct pressure on the wound.
A closed wound:
D. all of the above.
You cannot stop internal bleeding in the field.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
Place the methods for controlling external bleeding in the order they should be attempted: 1. tourniquet 2. elevation 3. direct pressure 4. pressure points
B. 3, 2, 1, 4
Primary treatment of an impaled object is to:
C. control bleeding.
A dressing is used to hold a bandage in place.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
When treating an eye injury, you should:
D. all of the above.
For most soft-tissue injuries, your treatment will include:
D. all of the above.
Burn patients may experience:
D. all of the above.
The mechanism of injury refers to:
C. the means by which an injury has occurred.
A mechanism of injury that could cause a musculoskeletal injury would be:
D. all of the above.
During examination of an injured limb, the EMR's best indicator of an underlying fracture, dislocation, or sprain is:
D. bruising.
General principles of splinting limb injuries include which of the following?
C. Splint the limb in the position it was found.
Splints made from boards, aluminum, or plastic are called:
A. rigid splints.
A traction splint should be applied to the patient if a fracture of the thighbone or femur is suspected.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
Head injuries may:
D. all of the above.
Signs and symptoms of a spinal cord injury include which of the following?
D. all of the above
If spinal injury is suspected and there are breathing problems, the head tilt-chin lift technique should be used to open the airway.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
If a patient with injuries to the chest exhibits a reversed movement of the chest during breathing:
D. all of the above.
The spine has how many sections?
A. five
A __________ is a disruption that tears the supporting ligaments of a joint.
D. dislocation
When splinting an extremity, you should check distal pulse, motor, and sensation:
D. all of the above.
The mechanism of injury is as important a consideration as the examination in determining if a patient may have sustained a spinal injury.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
You should never remove a motorcycle or football helmet.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
During the first stage of labor:
A. the bloody show occurs.
The infant's head is beginning to emerge. Which of the following should occur?
D. both A and B
As soon as the newborn is delivered, you should immediately continue to:
D. suction the mouth and nose of the newborn.
If an infant does not breathe on its own within the first minute after birth, CPR should beginimmediately.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
An infant who does not begin breathing independently within a minute of delivery is termed a stillborn.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
After delivery, the newborn should:
D. all of the above.
If the bag of waters does not break prior to or during delivery of the newborn, you must carefully break the bag.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
A prolapsed umbilical cord occurs when the cord comes out of the vagina before the infant is born. You should:
D. all of the above.
To determine if delivery is imminent, you should ask:
D. all of the above.
To time the contraction cycles, you time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
After the infant is delivered:
C. you now have two patients.
Approximately 1 to 2 cups of blood are lost during normal childbirth.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
Which of the following is not usually a sign or symptom of shock?
E. damp, warm skin
Which position is best for the treatment of shock if there is no head injury?
B. supine with the legs elevated
Bleeding is classified as all of the following except:
D. cellular.
Which statement about arterial bleeding is correct?
D. It is the least difficult to control.
The most common and effective way to control external bleeding is by:
D. direct pressure.
Place the following treatments for external bleeding in the proper order of use:
A. application of pressure at a pressure point
B. elevation of the body part
C. application of direct pressure
D. use of a tourniquet
C, B, D, A
A pressure point is a site where:
A. a main artery lies near the surface of the body directly over the bone.
A wound caused by a sharp-edged object such as a razor blade or broken glass is called a(n):
A. laceration.
The initial dressing placed on a wound should not be removed because it:
C. is a necessary part of clot formation.
Care in the field for a patient with an impaled object in the leg involves all of the following except:
A. carefully removing the object.
List the seven areas of the skeletal system.
Head (skull, and face); spinal column; shoulder girdle; upper extremities; rib cage (thorax); pelvis; lower extremities
Musculoskeletal injuries are caused by the following types of mechanisms of injury, except:
B. low-energy force.
A ____________ is a disruption that tears the supporting ligaments of the joint.
C. dislocation
Name four signs of injury you should look for
during an examination of a limb.
open wound
Deformity
swelling
bruising
Which procedure is done at least twice whenever a splint is applied?
D. assessment for circulation, sensation, and movement distal to the injury
List three examples of rigid splints.
Padded board splints
molded plastic or aluminum splints
padded wire ladder splints
SAM splints
folded cardboard splints
Emergency care of a patient who has a painful, deformed femur includes:
B. treating the patient for shock.
Facial injuries commonly result from which
of the following types of incidents?
D. all of the above
The unconscious trauma patient should be:
C. treated as if he or she has a potential spine injury.
When treating a patient with a potential spine injury, one EMR should always:
D. maintain constant manual in-line immobilization until the patient is secured to the backboard.
Crowning is determined by:
B. examining the vagina during a contraction.
Immediately after the infant has been delivered you should:
B. clear its nose, mouth, and throat of secretions.
When suctioning a newborn:
A. be careful not to reach all the way to the back of the infant’s mouth.
The placenta will deliver on its own, usually
within ___________ after delivery.
C. 30 minutes
You should check which pulse in a newborn infant?
C. brachial
A newborn infant should breathe at a rate of:
D. more than 40 breaths/min.
A(n) _____________ is the delivery of an incomplete or underdeveloped fetus.
D. miscarriage
Premature infants lose heat rapidly and must be kept warm.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following complications requires rapid transportation to the hospital?
A. prolapse of the umbilical cord
In an infant, the airway is __________ and __________ blocked by secretions, swelling, and foreign bodies.
C. smaller; more easily
Which of the following is not a component of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT)?
B. the child’s medical history
To measure the pulse rate in a child younger than 1 year, palpate the __________ pulse.
C. brachial
To relieve a foreign body airway obstruction in an infant, you should use:
D. both back slaps and chest thrusts.
Which of the following are signs of respiratory distress?
D. all of the above
Which of the following is not a sign of croup?
B. inability to swallow
Seizures in children are most commonly caused by:
C. high fever.
A weak, rapid pulse and shallow breathing are signs of:
C. shock.
If you need to remove a child from a car after a motor vehicle collision, you should:
B. leave the child in the car seat if possible.
List four signs that could indicate child abuse.
Any four of the following:
multiple fractures
bruises in various stages of healing (especially those clustered on the torso and buttocks)
human bites
burns (particularly cigarette burns and scalds from hot water)
reports of bizarre accidents that do not seem to have a logical explanation
You are examining an elderly man who is dressed in several layers of clothing. You should:
D. remove as much of his clothing as necessary to examine him properly.
A person who points to his ear and shakes his head “no” may be trying to tell you that he:
C. is deaf.
Osteoporosis is a condition in which elderly patients:
B. suffer a decrease in bone density.
List four techniques for communicating with older patients.
Identify yourself look directly at the patient
speak slowly and distinctly
explain what you are going to do in clear, simple language listen to the patient
show the patient respect
do not talk about the patient in front of the patient
be patient.
Hip fractures can often be identified by which sign?
A. The injured leg is shortened and externally rotated.
Disabilities that occur with age include:
D. all of the above.
What is the common infectious disease seen in elderly patients that can quickly result in death?
A. pneumonia
Common causes of altered mental status in geriatric patients include all of the following except:
A. traumatic injuries.
What is the role of the EMR in caring for patients with a chronic condition?
D. Ensure adequate airway, breathing, and circulation.
What are three types of mental problems frequently seen in elderly patients?
Depression
suicidal thoughts
dementia or Alzheimer disease
Osteoporosis is:
B. abnormal brittleness of the bones caused by a loss of calcium.
When working with hearing-impaired patients:
D. all of the above.
Disabilities that may occur with age include:
D. all of the above.
Chronic respiratory diseases and acute respiratory distress are two major types of respiratory diseases in geriatric patients.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
The MOST common psychiatric condition experienced by older adults is:
C. depression.
Elder abuse can take the form of:
D. all of the above.
A patient who has a terminal condition may have an advanced directive.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
A geriatric patient is defined as a patient older than:
D. 65 years of age.
EMS providers usually do not respond to many calls involving geriatric patients.
TRUE
FALSE
FALSE
Visually impaired or blind patients have learned to use other senses.
TRUE
FALSE
TRUE
You should assume that all geriatric patients have some level of hearing loss and dementia