1. Which of the following is found in gram negative bacteria but not gram positive bacteria?

    1. outer membrane
    2. ribosomes
    3. teichoic acid
    4. membrane sterols
    outer membrane
  2. Pleomorphic bacteria are best described as:
    variable shaped bacteria
  3. Endospores:

    1. can remain alive for decades
    2. can be formed by gram-positives only
    3. can survive boiling water
    4. all of the above
    All of the above
  4. Bacillus and Clostridium can have two forms; an endospore and a
    vegetative form
  5. Which term best describes spherical bacteria present in pairs?
  6. Runs and tumbles are associated with bacterial
  7. Phototrophic bacteria carry out a form of photosynthesis.
  8. Most bacteria move by flagella, but some move by cilia.
  9. Gram-negative bacteria have many (>20) layers of peptidoglycan, while gram-positive bacteria only have a few (<5) layers.
  10. The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called
  11. Staphylococci are clusters of cells.
  12. Sporozoan (apicomplexa) protozoa move by
    being carried (e.g., by blood)
  13. Which of the following maintains the chromosomes number of eukaryotic cells?

    1. snapping division
    2. binary fission
    3. mitosis
    4. meiosis
    5. both 2 and 3
  14. Which of the following does not have a cell wall?

    1. fungi
    2. algae
    3. protozoa
    4. all have cell walls
  15. Reproduces primarily by budding:
  16. A fungal filament is called:
  17. Most fungi are called:

    They get their food via:

    Extracellular digestion
  18. A vector spreads a pathogen from one host to another.
  19. Helminths (worms) are studied in microbiology because the adult worms are microscopic.
  20. Which of the following statments describe algae?

    1. They are eukaryotes
    2. They may be either microscopic or macroscopic
    3. They are classified according to their photosynthetic pigment
    4. All of the above statements are correct
    5. 1 and 2 are correct statements
    All of the above statements are correct.
  21. The general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are:

    1. attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, and release
    2. uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, and budding
    3. membrane fusion, duplication, uncoating, assembly, lysis
    4. endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and exocytosis
    attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, and release
  22. Living cells are required for culturing viruses because:

    1. viruses are technically non-living
    2. viruses require host cell genetic machinery to replicate
    3. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
    4. all of the above
    all of the above
  23. IN GENERAL, RNA viruses multiply in the cell __________ , and DNA viruses multiply in the cell ________________.
    cytoplasm, nucleus
  24. Binds enveloped viruses to host cells
  25. Can consist of a protein coat and DNA
  26. Formed from host cell membrane
  27. Binds unenveloped viruses to hosts
  28. Which can be used as mRNA?
    Plus strand RNA
  29. A naked, small, infectious RNA molecule is called
    a retrovirus
  30. A provirus exists when DNA from a virus is inserted in the host chromosome.
  31. Though they are small, viruses are still considered cells
  32. Proto-oncogenes are normal genes associated with cell division
  33. Iodine is considered
    a surfactant
  34. The cellular targets of physical and chemical agents fall into general categories including those that damage
    the cell membrane
  35. Can be used for fluid or air
  36. Includes ultraviolet light
    non-ionizing radiation
  37. Freeze drying
  38. Includes the batch and flash methods for liquids
  39. Includes gamma rays
    ionizing radiation
  40. A term that indicates an antibacterial agent primarily inhibits growth without substantial killing
  41. The destruction of most microorganisms on non-living tissue is called:
  42. Warmer temperatures generally interfere with the effectiveness of a disinfectant
  43. Ionizing radiation dislodges electrons from molecules, strengthening DNA.
  44. Moist heat is more effective than dry heat at killing microorganisms.
  45. Why are bacterial antibiotics that affect protein synthesis usually effective?
    The ribosomes of prokaryotes and eukaryotes are different.
  46. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
  47. Inhibit DNA or RNA synthesis
    nucleotide analogs
  48. Inhibit metabolic pathways
    sulfa drugs
  49. inhibit protein synthesis
  50. disrupt cell membranes
  51. Few drugs are selectively toxic against viruses against
    it is difficult to interfere with viral processes without also harming host processes
  52. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for antiviral drugs?

    1. inhibits uncoating
    2. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
    3. inhibits membrane synthesis
    4. inhibits release of virus
    Inhibits membrane synthesis
  53. The disk diffusion susceptibility test (Kirby-Bauer test) measures the _________ of an antibacterial drug.
  54. The MIC is the _______ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe.
    smallest concentration
  55. What is effective against fungal membranes?
    Amphotericin B
  56. Selective toxicity means a drug is effective against _________, but not against ________.
    pathogens; host.
  57. Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?

    1. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage.
    2. An ideal antimicrobial agent is fast acting.
    3. Ideal microbial agents do not exist.
    4. All of the above
    All of the above.
  58. Penicillin is effective against bacterial cell wall synthesis.
  59. A drug that prevents growth of bacteria but does not kill non-dividing bacteria would be classified as bacteriostatic.
  60. Infections acquired while in a health care facility.
  61. Capsules help bacteria by inhibiting
  62. When cases are concentrated in one area at a relatively stable rate, then the disease
  63. Endotoxins are found in:
    Gram negative bacteria only
  64. A virulence factor is one which:

    1. allows a microbe to invade and establish itself on the host.
    2. allows a host to evade infection.
    3. normal flora use against invading microorganisms
    4. invading organisms use against normal flora
    allows a microbe to invade and establish itself on the host.
  65. Koch's postulates determines
    if a microbe causes disease.
  66. Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector.
    The mosquito
  67. Opportunistic pathogens are LEAST likely to affect which of the following groups:

    1. AIDS patients
    2. drug addicts
    3. college students
    4. transplant recipients
    College students
  68. Bacterial fimbriae contribute to infection by aiding the bacteria in:
  69. Endogenous infections are caused by:
    parasitic flora that have been ingested into the gut
  70. Resident microbiota is absent from the:
  71. Microbial infection damages hosts by:
    toxins, exoenzymes, induction of immune response
  72. In a(n) _________ infection, a person can have a period of no illness before reactivation.
  73. Etiology is the study of the cause of disease.
  74. The number of TOTAL cases of a disease in a given area during a given period of time is called the prevalence of a disease.
  75. Normal microbiota consists mostly of bacteria and viruses.
  76. An isotope has a different number of _______ but the same ________ .
    neutrons; atomic mass
  77. Amino acids are linked in proteins by ______________ bonds.
  78. A volume of space in which an electron is likely to be found is called a:
  79. The sugar found in RNA is a:
  80. Can form branched chains:
  81. A phospolipid contains:
    Two fatty acids and a phospate bound to glycerol
  82. An amphipathic molecule is defined as a molecule that:
    both attracts and repels water
  83. ATP is classified as a:
    nucleic acid
  84. When NaCl is dissolved in water, sodium loses an electron and chlorine gains one. Which of the following is true?

    1. A covalent bond is formed between sodium and the oxygen of water.
    2. Ionic bonds form causing NaCl to re-form in the solution
    3. An oxidation-reduction reaction occurs causing the formation of ATP
    4. Sodium becomes a cation, and chlorine becomes an anion.
    Sodium becomes a cation, and chlorine becomes an anion.
  85. In proteins, helices and pleated sheets are associated with:
    secondary structure
  86. A solution with a pH of 2 ____ than a solution with a pH of 8.
    has more H+
  87. The process that forms polymers from individual subunits is called hydrolysis.
  88. Cholesterol is classified as a type of lipid called a steroid.
  89. The three-dimensional shape of a protein refers to its primary structure.
  90. Bacteria grow in _______ by the process of _________.
    number; binary fission
  91. Oxygen is toxic to:
    obligate anaerobes
  92. What is an organic compound such as an amino acid, nitrogenous base, or vitamin that cannot be synthesized by an organism and must be provided as a nutrient?
    growth factor
  93. A pump protein is most frequently associated with
    active transport
  94. Penicillin affects the synthesis of gram-positive cell walls. Bacteria would be most sensitive to penicillin during the ______ phase of the growth curve.
  95. The condition that occurs when organisms live in an obligatory but mutually beneficial relationship is called
  96. A candle jar consist of a candle placed in a jar and then allowed to go out. The candle used up most of the oxygen and emits carbon dioxide. Candle jars would thus be used to grow:
  97. Barophiles live in areas of
    High pressure
  98. Defined as the ingestion of whole cells or large solid matter?
  99. Turbidity is measured with a:
  100. A glove box is used to grow:
    Obligate anaerobes
  101. Green algae would be considered to be:
  102. A bacterial cell in a hypotonic environment will:
    swell slightly but not burst
  103. NADH
  104. In osmosis:
    water moves from high water concentration to low water concentration
  105. An allosteric inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme
  106. The Krebs cycle produces ___ ATP by substrate level phosphorylation for each pyruvic acid
  107. An atom that donates electrons during a reaction undergoes
  108. A direct product or products of glycolysis is/are:
    ATP and Pyruvic Acid
  109. An enzyme has an element of iron in its center Iron is thus classifed as a
  110. The complete metabolism of glucose by aerobic respiration results in ____ ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
  111. Where does the Krebs cycle occur in prokaryotes?
    the cytoplasm
  112. Where does glycolysis occur in eukaryotes?
    the cytoplasm
  113. Another term for biosynthesis.
  114. As electrons move through the electron transport chain _________ are removed from the cell.
    Protons (H+)
  115. An enzyme
    is affected by pH and temperature
  116. In fermentation, the terminal electron acceptor is
    an organic compound
  117. The substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
  118. The Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells
  119. When lipids are broken down, completely separate pathways from aerobic respiration are used.
  120. The reverse process of glycolysis is called gluconeogenesis.
  121. Involves plasmids
  122. Contains a P site
  123. Requires bacteriophages
  124. Has an anticodon
  125. DNA taken up from the environment
  126. In which directions do DNA and RNA polymerase work?
    Both RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase work in the 5' to 3' direction
  127. Called "jumping genes"
  128. Radiolabeled cytosine (cytosine with radioactive hydrogen) given to a cell would be incorporated into:
    both DNA and RNA
  129. As a general rule, the template strand on DNA will always begin with:
  130. Translations produces:
  131. Where are prokaryotic chromosomes located?
    In the cytoplasm
  132. AUC is one of the stop codons
  133. Replication in the bacteria only occurs just before the bacterial cell divides
  134. Frameshift mutations can be caused by insertions but not by deletions.
  135. A base mutation is a spontaneous mutation that causes a frame shift.
  136. Requires gel electrophoresis
    Southern blotting
  137. Cuts DNA molecules at specific locations
    restriction endonuclease
  138. Determines the order of DNA nucleotides in a genome
    DNA sequencing
  139. Produces a large number of identical DNA molecules
    Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
  140. Uses RNA template to transcribe molecule of cDNA
    Reverse transcriptase
  141. A genomic library is associated with
    recombinant DNA and gene cloning
  142. Two sources of DNA can be compared by labeling once source with radioactive phosphate, separting the strands by heating, and then cooling the sample. If the two sources intermix, it is called:
  143. Recombinant DNA in bacteria can produce:
    • a. drugs
    • b. human proteins
    • c. tansgenic plants
  144. The incorporation of a fluorescent DNA probe with a target DNA molecule is called FISH
  145. A transgenic plant is one that has DNA from another species added to it.
  146. Antisense RNA binds to mRNA allowing an increase in the rate of translation.
  147. Restriction enzymes inhibit the movement of DNA
Card Set
Micro Final