EMS Exam 2 Questions

  1. The posterior part of the mouth is called the:




    A. oropharynx.
  2. Parts of the body used in breathing include the:




    D. all of the above.
  3. The first step in assessing a patient's airway is to:




    C. check for responsiveness.
  4. A mechanical suction device:




    B. can be used with a rigid suction tip or a flexible whistle-tip catheter.
  5. If an unconscious patient is breathing, the recovery position can be used to keep the airway open:




    D. all of the above.
  6. Signs of inadequate breathing include:




    D. all of the above.
  7. Partial or complete obstruction of the respiratory passages:




    A. may be caused by food, vomitus, or objects.
  8. If it has been determined that a patient's airway is partially obstructed, the patient should be instructed not to cough.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  9. Airway obstruction in a conscious infant may require a combination of back slaps and chest thrusts. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  10. If a patient is wheezing and has blue lips, medical personnel should begin rescue breathing. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  11. Which of the following statements regarding the airway of infants and children is FALSE?




    C. The trachea of infants and children is more rigid than that of an adult.
  12. The jaw-thrust maneuver should be used to open the airway of all nonbreathing patients. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  13. To determine the proper size oral airway, measure from the patient's:




    C. earlobe to the corner of the mouth.
  14. An oral airway should be inserted upside down and then rotated 180 degrees.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  15. In an unconscious patient, a blocked airway is most likely caused by:




    D. the tongue.
  16. The first step in correcting a blocked airway is to:




    B. position the head properly.
  17. To open the airway in an unconscious adult with no suspected spinal injury, you should use the:




    B. head lift–chin tilt technique.
  18. An oral airway of proper size will extend from the:




    A. corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of the earlobe.
  19. When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, lubricate the outside of the tube with:




    A. a water-soluble lubricant.
  20. When at rest, the normal breathing rate for an adult is ______ times per minute.




    B. 12 to 20
  21. Signs of inadequate breathing in an adult include all of the following except:




    D. a respiratory rate of 14 to 18 breaths per minute.
  22. To correct breathing, the very first step you should take is to:




    A. open the airway.
  23. If a patient is coughing forcefully with something caught in the throat:




    C. encourage the patient to cough.
  24. If gastric distention occurs while you are doing CPR, it is probably caused by:




    B. air entering the patient’s stomach.
  25. The carotid artery is located in the:




    D. neck.
  26. Cardiac arrest means:




    D. all of the above.
  27. The cause of cardiac arrest should be determined before beginning treatment.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    FALSE
  28. Chest compression:




    D. all of the above.
  29. Chest compressions on an adult should be at the rate of 100 compressions per minute. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  30. __________ is the movement of air in and out of the lungs.




    A. Ventilation
  31. Signs of effective CPR include which of the following?




    D. all of the above
  32. Gastric distention:




    D. all of the above.
  33. Two-rescuer CPR is usually more effective than one-rescuer CPR. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  34. CPR should not be started when reliable signs of death are present.

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  35. If you are alone with an adult cardiac arrest victim, you should call 9-1-1 before beginning CPR. 

    TRUE
    FALSE
    TRUE
  36. The first step before beginning CPR on a cardiac arrest victim of any age is to determine unresponsiveness. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  37. The ratio of chest compressions to breaths in child CPR is:




    D. 30:2.
  38. Automated external defibrillators (AEDs) can only be used by EMTs.

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    FALSE
  39. What are the four most
    appropriate places to check a patient’s pulse if you suspect cardiac arrest?

    A. ________________________________

    B. ________________________________

    C. ________________________________

    D. ________________________________
    Radial, brachial, carotid, femoral
  40. Which condition should exist before starting CPR?




    B. absence of breathingand pulse
  41. Place the following links in the Chain of Survival in the appropriate order.

    A. early defibrillation

    B. early CPR

    C. early advanced care

    D. early recognition
    D, B, A, C
  42. If you are alone with a pulseless adult patient, you should:




    A. activate the EMS system before beginning CPR.
  43. Which of the following is a reliable sign of death?




    D.   all of the above
  44. To perform chest compressions on an adult patient, you should press on the:




    A. center of the chest, in between the nipples.
  45. The rate of chest compressions in an adult patient is:




    B. 100 per minute.
  46. When performing two-rescuer CPR on an adult patient, the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:




    B. 30 to 2.
  47. Which of the following statements about defibrillation is true?




    A. It identifies the ineffective pulsations of the heart in cardiac arrest and reorganizes them into effective heartbeats.
  48. Place the five steps of the patient assessment in the correct order.

    A. Examine from head to toe
    B. Initial patient assessment
    C. Obtain a medical history
    D. Scene size-up
    E. Ongoing assessment
    D, B, A, C, E
  49. Performing a scene size-up includes all of the following except:




    A. forming a general impression of the patient.
  50. The main objective of the primary assessment is to:




    D. all of the above.
  51. Place the seven steps of the primary assessment in the correct order.

    A. Assess the patient’s breathing and correct any life-threatening conditions.

    B. Assess the patient’s airway and correct any life-threatening conditions.

    C. Update responding EMS units.

    D. Form a general impression of the patient.

    E. Assess the patient’s circulation, including severe bleeding.

    F. Assess the patient’s responsiveness and stabilize the spine if necessary.

    G. Acknowledge the patient’s chief complaint.
    D, F, B, A, E, G, C
  52. A patient who moans when you pinch her earlobe should be classified as which level on the AVPU scale?




    A. P
  53. What are the vital signs taken by EMRs during a secondary assessment?
    • Respiration,
    • pulse,
    • capillary refill,
    • blood pressure,
    • skin condition,
    • pupil size and reactivity,
    • level of consciousness
  54. Where is the carotid pulse point located?




    C. on the patient’s neck
  55. Place the steps of the reassessment in the proper order.

    A. Identify and treat changes in the patient’s condition.

    B. Reassess the chief complaint.

    C. Repeat the primary assessment.

    D. Reassess the patient.

    E. Provide a hand-off report.

    F. Reassess vital signs.

    G. Recheck the effectiveness of the treatment.
    C, F, B, G, A, D, E
  56. Your dispatcher should have obtained:

    a. the safety level of the scene.
    b. the number of people involved in the incident.
    c. the location of the incident.
    e. all of the above.
    e. all of the above.
  57. The primary patient assessment includes:



    A. forming a general impression.
  58. The AVPU scale is a four level scale used for:




    B. describing a patient's level of consciousness.
  59. To check a patient's breathing:




    D. all of the above.
  60. Immediate action used to control severe bleeding is to:




    A. apply direct pressure.
  61. Yellowish skin often indicates:




    C. liver problems.
  62. Pale skin often indicates:




    A. decreased circulation.
  63. When you check a patient's respiration rate:




    A. one complete cycle of inhaling and exhaling is counted as one breath.
  64. The patient's skin condition should be checked for:



    D. all of the above.
  65. Flail chest can result from:




    C. multiple rib fractures.
  66. In which part of the SAMPLE history would you ask a patient if he or she is under the care of a physician? 




    D. P
  67. The S in the acronym DOTS stands for:




    C. swelling.
  68. Cyanotic skin will appear:




    B. blue.
  69. The palpation method of measuring blood pressure does not give you a diastolic pressure. 

    TRUE 
    FALSE
    TRUE
  70. When you shine a penlight into a patient's eyes, the pupils should:




    B. constrict.
  71. Name the steps in the full-body assessment:
    a.   Assess the head.

    b.   Assess the eyes.

    c.   Assess the nose.

    d.   Assess the mouth.

    e.   Assess the breath odor.

    f.    Assess the neck.

    g.  Assess the chest and observe breathing motion

    h.  Palpate the chest

    i.   Assess the abdomen.

    j.    Assess the pelvis.

    k.    Assess the back.

    l.   Assess the extremities.
  72. What does DOTS stand for?
    a.   Deformities

    b.   Open injuries

    c.   Tenderness

    d.   Swelling
  73. What is the "S" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Signs and symptoms
  74. What is the "A" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Allergies
  75. What is the "M" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Medications
  76. What is the "P" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Pertinent past medical history
  77. What is the "L" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Last oral intake
  78. What is the "E" in SAMPLE stand for?
    Events leading up to this illness or injury
  79. To determine the proper size nasal airway, measure from the patient's:




    C. earlobe to the tip of the nose.
  80. When performing two-rescuer CPR on an child patient, the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:




    D. 15 to 2.
Author
Scott57
ID
266943
Card Set
EMS Exam 2 Questions
Description
ch 6-8
Updated