1. 1. FLIP ______ documents are usually NOT used during flight. (B/1/1)
    a. planning
  2. If you need to locate information about the altimeter changeover procedures, but cannot remember where to look, the best place to start your search would be the ______. (B/1/2)
    d. Index for Aeronautical Information in GP
  3. If planning a mission in the US, you should reference ______ for information about theater operations and supplementary airfield information. (B/1/3)
    a. AP/1
  4. It is mandatory to file the Preferred IFR Route if one is established between your departure and destination airfield. (B/1/4)
    b. False
  5. For information on special use airspace in the US, consult FLIP ______. (B/1/5)
    a. AP/1A
  6. Which of the following is NOT a FLIP enroute publication? (B/2/1)
    c. AP/1B
  7. To find out what an airfield’s servicing capabilities are, you should reference ______. (B/2/2)
    d. the IFR Supplement
  8. Low altitude enroute charts are for operations below ______ feet MSL. (B/2/3)
    c. 18,000
  9. A star next to any item on the low altitude enroute chart indicates ______. (B/2/4)
    a. part-time or on request operation
  10. Radials and bearings on the low altitude enroute chart are ______. (B/2/5)
    b. magnetic
  11. (L) and (T) symbols on high altitude enroute charts refer to ______. (B/2/6)
    c. a NAVAID having a restriction on its usable range
  12. Q-routes offer more direct routing than NAVAIDS and are applicable for what altitudes? (B/2/7)
    b. 18,000 feet MSL to FL 450
  13. The primary purpose of the small airfield sketch in the lower portion of each approach plate is to______. (B/3/1)
    c. aid pilots during landing transition by helping to identify the runway environment
  14. What area is ALWAYS shown to scale on a published instrument procedure? (B/3/2)
    b. only the area inside the solid line circle
  15. What equipment would be required to fly the final approach portion of a published instrument procedure titled “VOR or ILS RWY 32L?” (B/3/3)
    • a. VOR
    • c. ILS
  16. Military departure procedures are found in ______. (B/3/4)
    • a. FLIP low altitude terminal books
    • b. FLIP high altitude terminal books
  17. Relief is depicted on aeronautical charts using ______. (B/4/1)
    • a. contour lines
    • b. shading
    • c. elevation/gradient tints
  18. Hydrography portrays ______. (B/4/3)
    d. bodies of water
  19. The CHUM and CHUM Supplement or E-CHUM could be used to update ______. (B/4/4)
    • a. TPCs
    • b. ONCs
    • c. JOGs
  20. What would you do first to get NOTAMs for Mathis Field (KSJT) using DINS? (C/1/1)
    b. Type in KSJT
  21. D series NOTAMs are those that need wide dissemination and you can call any FSS at 1-800-WXBRIEF to get the D NOTAMs you are interested in. (C/1/2)
    a. True
  22. FDC NOTAMs will automatically be provided by the FSS mission briefer. (C/1/3)
    b. False
  23. If your destination is a civil field that is not listed in the IFR Supplement, you need to reference______. (C/1/4)
    c. the A/FD
  24. FLIP planning documents are updated by ______.
    • a. US Notice to Airman (NOTAM) system
    • b. Planning Change Notices
    • c. Urgent Change Notices
  25. Information on Military Training Routes (MTRs) can be found in ______.
    c. AP/1B
  26. An airport depicted with a brown symbol on the low altitude enroute chart ______.
    a. does not have a published instrument procedure
  27. RNAV routes are available for ______ equipped aircraft and are depicted in ______ on Low Altitude and High Altitude Enroute charts.
    c. GPS; blue
  28. All airports shown on high altitude enroute charts have at least one hard surfaced runway with a minimum runway length of ______ feet.
    b. 5000
  29. FLIP terminal books include ______.
    • a. all DoD instrument terminal procedures
    • c. civil procedures requested by the military
  30. The Terminal Change Notice (TCN) book contains amendments to ______.
    d. both terminal high and low altitude volumes
  31. Which chart would be best for a mission, or portion of a mission, requiring a high level of detail?
    c. JOG
  32. VFR chart relief symbols are used to depict ______.
    d. differences in the elevation of the land surface
  33. The NTAP provides NOTAM information ______.
    b. of a long term nature
  34. 1. A good rule of thumb when selecting a cross-country destination is to select a base within ______NM. (B/1/1)
    b. 300
  35. 2. If you were flying a route of 220 miles, what approximate altitude would you plan to use? (B/1/2)
    d. 22,000
  36. 3. Which of the following is a way to decrease fuel consumption during cruise? (B/2/1)
    • a. Fly optimum altitude
    • b. Fly proper cruise speed
    • c. Minimize drag
  37. 4. Given constant altitude cruise and 50 knots of headwind, which of the following statements is true if you want to achieve maximum fuel efficiency? (B/2/2)
    b. Cruise at an airspeed greater than max range airspeed.
  38. 5. Which of the following does NOT meet the published instrument procedures definition of AFI 11-202, Volume 3? (B/3/1)
    c. A non DoD/NGA or NACO approach chart acceptable to the Pilot in Command (regardless ofMAJCOM approval)
  39. 6. If filing to a destination outside Class A airspace that requires radar to fly the only available approach, you must be able to positively identify your aircraft’s position within ____ NMs of the airfield. (B/3/2)
    c. 25
  40. 7. If filing to a destination with a circling approach only, the forecast ______ must be at or above the lowest compatible published instrument procedures minimums. (B/3/3)
    c. ceiling and visibility
  41. 12. The forecaster tells you that the weather at Corpus Christi International is 1500 broken, 8000 overcast, with 7 miles visibility. Do you need to designate an alternate for this mission? (B/5/1)
    a. Yes
  42. 13. In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use ______ minute(s) and ______ pounds of fuel.(C/1/1)
    b. 1; 50
  43. 14. Level off fuel (L/O) is the planned amount of fuel used from departure field elevation to planned cruise altitude. (C/1/2)
    a. True
  44. 15. Using your calculator, determine the distance to level off with a 180 knot average groundspeed and atime to climb of 8 minutes. (C/1/3)
    b. 24 miles
  45. 20. In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of ______ minute(s) and ______ pounds of fuel. (C/2/5)
    d. 15; 100
  46. 22. Enter the date on the DD 175 based on ______ time. (D/1/1)
    a. Local
  47. 23. Call signs on the DD 175 are limited to a maximum of ______ characters. (D/1/2)
    c. 7
  48. 26. If you require service at your destination you would enter the word “Service” in the Remarks section of the DD 175 flight plan. (D/1/5)
    b. False
  49. 27. Following the circled “R”, how would you show an enroute delay at Tyndall AFB (PAM) for 15 minutes with Moody AFB (VAD) as your final destination? (D/1/6)
    c. D 0+15 PAM VAD
  50. 28. If filing a stopover flight plan and an alternate is required for the second destination, where do you show the alternate airfield’s identifier and the ETE to that alternate? (D/1/7)
    c. In parenthesis following the last entry in the “ROUTE OF FLIGHT” section of the second leg
  51. 1. If filing to a destination where radar is required to fly the approach and you are operating in Class A airspace, you ______.
    c. may file to the nearest nonradar fix or facility and request radar vector service
  52. 3. To designate an airfield as an alternate, forecast weather (± 1 hour of ETA) must be ______ above lowest compatible published instrument procedure minimum and visibility of ______ or published visibility, whichever is ______.
    d. 500 feet; 2 SM; higher
  53. 1. On an enroute chart, a flag with an X in it indicates a ______. (B/1/1)
    d. MCA
  54. 2. Jet route altitudes start at ______ and go up to ______. (B/1/2)
    c. 18,000 MSL; FL450
  55. 3. RNAV routes offer the most dependable routing for GPS equipped aircraft.(B/1/3)
    b. False
  56. 4. The pilot may use GPS-provided data to ensure terrain clearance for IFR flight. (B/1/4)
    b. False
  57. 5. Which of the following would NOT require you to change your flight plan in-flight? (B/2/1)
    d. Change of ETA by 15 minutes
  58. 6. Select the best way to use your in-flight log. (B/3/1)
    c. Log the actual times and fuel and compare this to your planned data to be sure you can get to your destination.
  59. 7. On each leg of your flight, you are increasingly above the planned fuel and are ahead on time. What is the most likely cause for this? (B/3/2)
    b. You have less headwind/more tailwind than forecast.
  60. 9. You are at FL250 on an IFR flight plan, and you want to increase your TAS from 240 knots to 255 knots. Are you required to report this change to center? (B/4/2)
    d. Yes. It is greater than 5% or 10 knots change in true airspeed.
  61. 10. If you have lost comm and in VMC conditions, you are required to land at the nearest suitable airport.(B/5/1)
    b. False
  62. 11. The MEA is FL 220, and you filed for FL260. You are assigned FL 240 by Center. Which altitude would you fly if you lost communication? (B/5/2)
    b. FL 240
  63. 12. Which document lists Center frequencies? (B/5/3)
    b. IFR Supplement
  64. 13. The weather forecaster did not forecast any significant weather for your route of flight. Halfway to your destination, you encounter thunderstorms with heavy rains. What should you do? (B/6/1)
    a. Avoid the thunderstorms and notify METRO of the unexpected weather.
  65. 14. Which cloud has the most hazardous weather associated with it? (B/6/2)
    c. Cumulonimbus
  66. 15. In order to fly RNAV DPs, CDI sensitivity must be set, either manually or automatically, at terminal sensitivity (±______ nm, ______ scale deflection). (B/8/1)
    c. 1; full
  67. 16. TAA area lateral boundaries are identified by magnetic courses ______ the IF (IAF). (B/8/2)
    a. TO
  68. 17. If using GPS in the terminal area, pilots should not comply with ATC instructions to proceed direct to a point on a STAR/DP. (B/8/3)
    b. False
  69. 1. IFR flight in controlled airspace requires that you have a filed flight plan and have operable______prior to takeoff.
    d. communication, navigation, and identification equipment
  70. 2. In most cases, ______ airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL and includes Victor routes and transition airspace.
    d. Class E
  71. 3. The MEA provides ______ obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain and ______ in non mountainous terrain.
    c. 2000 feet; 1000 feet
  72. 4. To adjust your flight plan in-flight, you ______.
    b. contact the enroute controlling agency and make your request
  73. 5. When a TAA is published, it replaces the ______ for the approach procedure.
    b. MSA
  74. 7. Compulsory reporting points are denoted by a ______.
    b. filled-in triangle
  75. 8. You must report a change in airspeed when ______.
    d. changing your TAS by plus or minus 5% or 10 knots
  76. 9. If you go lost comm on an IFR flight plan, you will fly the highest of your ______ altitude.
    c. assigned, MEA, or expected
  77. 10. What is the proper way to contact a military weather facility in-flight?
    d. (Name) METRO
  78. 11. What is the difference between a full service METRO and a limited service METRO?
    b. A full service METRO has a forecaster on duty.
  79. 1. If you were planning a mission from Laughlin AFB to Randolph AFB, you would consult ______ for Randolph supplementary airfield information. (B/1/1)
    1. AP/1
  80. 2. If you wanted to know if your destination has the proper grade fuel available for your aircraft, you would consult the ______. (B/1/2)
    2. IFR Supplement
  81. 3. If you are planning your IFR flight to operate at 20,000 feet MSL, you should use a ______ enroute chart. (B/1/3)
    3. high altitude
  82. 4. For information on emergency procedures, you would consult the ______. (B/1/4)
    4. Flight Information Handbook
  83. 5. Most Air Force VFR missions commonly use what type charts for VFR navigation? (B/1/5)
    5. Most use TPC, ONC, or JOG charts
  84. 6. What are the obstacle clearances established by MEA indications? (B/4/1)
    • a. 2000 feet in mountainous terrain
    • b. 1000 feet in non mountainous terrain
    • c. When not shown on the high chart, MEA is 18,000 feet MSL
  85. 7. What are some reasons you may have to make adjustments to your flight plan? (B/4/2)
    • a. Winds
    • b. Turbulence
    • c. Icing
  86. 8. Position reports are not required when in radar contact unless requested by controllers. When you are not in radar contact, how will you know when to transmit a position report? (B/4/3)
    8. Position reports are required at all compulsory reporting points, indicated by a filled-in triangle.
  87. 9. Where would you find the formats for flight plan changes and position reports? (B/4/4)
    9. The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement
  88. 10. You are IMC and assigned to fly FL 260, your MEA is FL 240, and you requested FL 280. If you experience lost communications, what altitude should you fly? (B/4/5)
    10. Fly the highest of: A - assigned, M – minimum IFR altitude (MEA), E -expected. In thiscase, fly your assigned altitude, FL 260.
  89. 11. If you fly into unexpected hazardous weather, you should transmit a PIREP. Where would you find the PIREP format? (B/4/6)
    11. Flight Information Handbook, Section C
  90. 12. RNAV Terminal Area Procedures require that aircraft equipment meet certification standards addressed in what publication? (B/4/7)
    12. AFI 11-202V3
  91. 11. What condition must be met in order to use GPS for an approach or departure procedure?
    • a. Radar monitoring must be available on entire route
    • b. Route must begin and end at a departure and arrival fix when practical
    • c. Route must avoid prohibited and restricted airspace by at least three NMs
  92. 3. Which class of airspace covers controlled airspace over nontowered airfields?
    Class E (Class D becomes Class E when tower closes)
  93. 5. You are IMC and assigned to fly FL 180, your MEA is 10,000 feet, and you requested FL 200 and were told to expect that altitude. If you experience lost communications, what altitude should you fly?
    • a. Fly the highest of:
    • b. A - assigned
    • c. M - minimum IFR altitude (MEA)
    • d. E – expected
    • e. In this case, fly your expected altitude, FL 200.
  94. 7. Which FLIP chart should you reference for a mission at 16,000 feet MSL?
    6. Low altitude chart
  95. 8. NOTAM abbreviation codes would be found in the _____.
    7. Flight Information Handbook
  96. 9. Which chart would you use if you needed more topographical detail than is represented on a TPC or Sectional chart?
    8. A JOG chart
  97. 10. Where can you find a formatted guide for changing flight plans in-flight?
    9. The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement
  98. 11. What condition must be met in order to use GPS for an approach or departure procedure?
    10. Terminal (or better) RAIM must be available.
  99. 1. When flying VFR, your destination must have a forecast ceiling equal to or greater than ______ feet and visibility of at least ______. (B/1/1)
    b. (1500 Air Force) (1000 Navy)/3miles
  100. 2. You are operating at 1500 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace during daylight hours. What are your minimum cloud clearance requirements? (B/1/2)
    • a. 500 feet below and 1000 feet above
    • c. 2000 horizontal
  101. 3. The ______ section of the enroute supplement will tell you if a field is OBO or if a PPR is required.(B/1/3)
    c. REMARKS
  102. 4. The main purpose of any checkpoint is to ______. (C/1/1)
    b. provide a verification of the accuracy of your preflight planning
  103. 5. As a general rule of thumb, checkpoints should be between ______ and ______ minutes apart. (C/1/2)
    b. 5; 25
  104. 6. When plotting courses on your VFR chart, the course line should extend inside the circle that highlights each checkpoint. (C/1/3)
    b. False
  105. 7. The objective when creating your map is give yourself points in time to cross-check position and validate planning. The best way to accomplish that is to plan the flight for a ______. (C/1/4)
    c. constant groundspeed
  106. 8. Along with your checkpoint, the flight log should include entries for ______. (C/2/1)
    c. STTO, climb fuel, pattern and arrival fuel, and fuel reserve
  107. 9. The upper portion (protractor) of the plotter is used to measure the ______ on aeronautical charts.(C/2/2)
    b. direction of lines in degrees
  108. 10. The small inner scales located about a third of the distance from the outer edge of the plotter are used for measuring a course with a ______. (C/2/3)
    c. parallel
  109. 11. Aircraft heading systems and aeronautical charts are both based on true north and south. (C/3/1)
    b. False
  110. 12. To convert your true course to a magnetic course you ______ easterly variation. (C/3/2)
    b. subtract
  111. 13. Magnetic heading (MH) is magnetic course (MC) adjusted for ______. (C/3/3)
    d. winds
  112. 14. On a VFR flight at low altitude, since calibration error is negligible, CAS will equal IAS. (C/3/4)
    b. False
  113. 15. The first step to compute your fuel is to determine the specific range factor using ______. (C/3/5)
    a. the Flight Manual
  114. 16. Which of the following items is usually NOT plotted on your VFR chart? (C/4/1)
    c. Navigation aid frequencies
  115. 17. A route study is a detailed examination of the planned flight concentrating on visualizing what you should see as you navigate the route. (D/1/1)
    a. True
  116. 1. When checking if an airfield is OBO or requires a PPR, you should consult NOTAMs and ______.
    a. the Enroute Supplement
  117. 2. Which of the following is NOT a type of special use airspace?
    d. National Parks and Wildlife Zones
  118. 3. When measuring a course, the key first step is ______.
    c. determine the general direction of the course line
  119. 4. To convert your true course to magnetic course you ______ westerly variation.
    a. add
  120. 5. On a VFR flight above 3000 feet AGL and heading 090, which of the following would be a legal altitude to maintain?
    b. 5500 feet
  121. 6. The main objective when completing the VFR map is to present all the essential information while ______.
    b. minimizing clutter and the amount of map detail obscured by the markings
  122. 7. If you have any questions or difficulties completing a military VFR flight plan, you should refer to______ for guidance.
    c. FLIP General Planning
  123. 1. Once you have filed your VFR flight plan, clearance delivery ______. (B/1/1)
    d. provides nothing because you are not required to call them for a VFR flight plan
  124. 2. How is your VFR flight plan activated when departing a military or civilian airfield? (B/1/2)
    c. Tower activates your VFR flight plan from a military field; FSS activates your VFR flight plan from a civilian field when you contact them after you are airborne.
  125. 3. When departing from an airfield that has Class D airspace, you should remain on tower frequency until you are clear of their airspace. (B/1/3)
    a. True
  126. 4. While under flight following you can expect radar vectors to your destination. (B/2/1)
    b. False
  127. 5. If you do not have flight following and must change your VFR flight plan to IFR, you should first contact ______. (B/2/2)
    a. FSS and file your route
  128. 6. If you change your VFR flight plan to an IFR flight plan with ATC, you need to contact FSS because______. (B/2/3)
    c. you need to cancel your VFR flight plan.
  129. 7. Which of the following is NOT part of DR navigation? (C/1/1)
    b. GPS
  130. 8. If you do not see your checkpoint at the time you planned, you would turn to your next checkpoint based on time. (C/1/2)
    a. True
  131. 10. When navigating on a VFR route you want to look for points ______ and have them identified by______. (C/2/2)
    b. 2-5 minutes out; 1 minute out
  132. 11. One method to use in measuring distance is using cockpit view angles. Another method discussed was ______. (C/2/3)
    a. measuring the distance between two objects for comparison method
  133. 12. The Standard Closing Angle used for 210 knots groundspeed is 2°. (C/2/4)
    b. False; 17 degrees
  134. 13. How long do you hold your correction using SCA if you are 1 mile left of your course? (C/2/5)
    a. 1 minute
  135. 14. Using the proportional method to correct for time, you add/reduce ______ knot(s) for every ______second(s) late or early and hold this new airspeed for the number of minutes equal to your groundspeed in miles per minute. (C/2/6)
    a. 1; 1
  136. 15. You are going 3NM per minute and are 15 seconds early. How would you correct? (C/2/7)
    c. Subtract 15 knots for 3 minutes.
  137. 16. You are doing 4 NM per minute and are 30 seconds late. How would you correct? (C/2/8)
    d. Add 30 knots for 4 minutes.
  138. 17. Your ground speed is 210 knots and you are 15 seconds early. What is your correction (use 10 percent method to calculate? (C/2/9)
    c. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 2 minutes and 30 seconds.
  139. 18. Your groundspeed is 210 knots and you are 7 seconds late. What is your correction? (C/2/10)
    b. Increase your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 10 seconds.
  140. 19. You are doing 3 miles per minute. What is your correction if you are 30 seconds early (use Incremental Method to calculate)? (C/2/11)
    d. Subtract 30 knots for 3 minutes.
  141. 20. Your groundspeed is 4 miles per minute and you are 10 seconds late. What is your correction?(C/2/12)
    a. Add 40 knots for 1 minute.
  142. 21. What items would you record on the in-flight log? (C/3/1)
    c. Fuel; time
  143. 22. Using your electronic calculator, how long would it take to travel 35 miles at a ground speed of 210 knots? (C/3/2)
    c. Ten minutes
  144. 1. When departing VFR you should tell tower your ______.
    a. initial altitude and direction of flight
  145. 2. When departing VFR in Class D airspace, you are expected to ______.
    a. remain on tower frequency until clear of their airspace
  146. 3. When are you required to change your ETA on a VFR flight plan?
    b. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 30 minutes
  147. 4. You are navigating at night using DR nav and approaching a checkpoint that you can’t see. When would you turn to the next checkpoint?
    b. Turn on time.
  148. 5. What are the primary scan positions on a VFR/low-level nav route?
    c. 10-2 position
  149. 6. You are level at 3000 feet AGL and see your checkpoint 45° below the level horizon. How far are you from the checkpoint?
    a. 3000 feet
  150. 7. Which one of the following course correction methods involves timing with a heading change?
    b. Standard Closing Angle method
  151. 1. What are the five Cs? (B/1/1)
    d. Confess, climb, conserve, communicate, comply
  152. 2. What is the first thing you should do when you realize you are lost? (B/1/2)
    c. Check your clock, fuel, and heading.
  153. 3. When lost in-flight in overcast conditions, it is best to ______. (B/1/3)
    a. climb to increase radio reception, but maintain VMC conditions
  154. 1. You are flying along in your training area at 13,000 feet and you become disoriented. Your instruments are not functioning properly, and there is a cloud deck at 17,000 feet, what should you do?
    b. Climb in your area to increase visibility and radio reception, but stay below clouds and maintain VMC (17,000 feet).
  155. 2. One way an FSS could help you when lost is by ______.
    d. providing weather information
  156. 3. If lost in-flight, set your transponder to ______.
    c. 7700
  157. 4. When lost in-flight, you should ______.
    c. look for landmarks to help identify you position
  158. 5. A distress call should contain ______.
    b. PAN,PAN, PAN, call sign, and type of emergency
  159. 1. If Forrest Sherman Field Tower was closed for some reason, then the airspace around the airfield would become Class D. (B/1/1)
    b. False; Class E
  160. 2. Other than on the Sectional chart, where can you find information on a TRSA? (B/1/2)
    b. In the A/FD
  161. 3. Before you cancel your IFR flight plan and begin your VFR arrival you must first be ______. (B/1/3)
    d. in VFR conditions and outside Class A airspace
  162. 4. When arriving VFR at a military airfield in Class C airspace, you should contact ______. (B/1/4)
    d. approach control
  163. 5. Why is Pensacola categorized as Class C airspace? (B/1/5)
    a. It has an operating tower and has a radar approach control.
  164. 6. At a minimum, what information should you provide at initial radio check-in when entering Class C airspace VFR? (B/1/6)
    b. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder, and intentions
  165. 7. Even though you might not use the OLS for your arrival, you should be aware of its presence on the field because ______. (B/2/1)
    c. it could present an obstruction hazard
  166. 8. While maintaining aircraft control and continuing to clear, what is the first thing you should do after realizing you might have radio failure? (B/3/1)
    c. Troubleshoot your radio connection and settings.
  167. 9. In a lost comm situation, how should you acknowledge the tower’s instructions? (B/3/2)
    d. Rock your wings.
  168. 10. How is Class D airspace identified on VFR Sectional Charts? (C/1/1)
    a. A dashed blue line
  169. 11. If you learn there is a turbine-powered aircraft in the pattern, it is at ______ feet AGL. (C/1/2)
    c. 1500
  170. 12. What are two methods for communicating at an uncontrolled airfield? (C/1/3)
    b. FSS and self-announce
  171. 13. What is true about the segmented circle? (C/2/1)
    b. They are located on the airfield to afford maximum visibility to pilots.
  172. 14. The landing strip indicators portray the ______. (C/2/2)
    d. runway alignment
  173. 15. The ______ is used to display the direction for landings and takeoffs. (C/2/3)
    d. landing direction indicator (tetrahedron)
  174. 16. If you are landing at a civilian uncontrolled airfield in Class E airspace, you should exercise extra caution because ______. (C/3/1)
    b. there are no two-way communications requirements
  175. 17. When landing at an uncontrolled airfield in a comm out situation you should ______. (C/3/2)
    c. enter downwind at a 45° angle
  176. 1. When operating under VFR during an arrival at a strange airfield, the ______ is responsible for separation from other aircraft.
    a. pilot
  177. 2. For VFR arrivals it is important to note that Class C airspace normally has a radius of ______ NM.
    b. 10
  178. 3. When approaching a military airfield for a VFR arrival, it is a good practice to monitor the ______frequency prior to making initial radio contact.
    d. ATIS
  179. 4. What information should you provide during initial radio contact when arriving VFR at a military airfield?
    d. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder code, and intentions
  180. 5. The _______ is a Navy-unique visual landing system providing glideslope information.
    a. Optical Landing System (OLS)
  181. 6. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are normally ______.
    c. determined by the instrument procedure at the airfield
  182. 7. What happens if the tower at an airport in Class D airspace closes?
    d. It reverts to Class E and is an uncontrolled airfield.
  183. 8. What must occur prior to entering any Class D airspace to conduct a VFR arrival?
    b. Establish two-way radio contact.
  184. 9. Two-way radio contact is not required when entering Class ______ airspace described with a shaded magenta line.
    c. E
  185. 10. When should you use self-announce procedures during a VFR arrival to a strange field?
    c. The tower is closed or operating part time, and there is no FSS.
  186. 11. The national terminal radar program provides which of the following services?
    b. Basic, TRSA, Class B, and Class C
  187. 12. When approaching an uncontrolled strange field VFR, who has the right of way for landing?
    b. The aircraft with the lower altitude
  188. 13. What is the first thing you do after lost comm has been determined and you have checked your equipment?
    b. Set the transponder to 7600.
Card Set
nav 15-02