-
Which of the following tracts are motor?
- Lateral Corticospinal
- Ventral Corticospinal
- Olivospinal
- Reticulospinal
- Rubrospinal
- Tectospinal
- Vestibulospinal
-
Which of the following tracts are sensory?
- Posterior Columns
- Dorsal Spinocerebellar
- Ventral Spinocerebellar
- Dorsal Spinocerebellar
- Lateral Spinothalamic
-
The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?
Occipital Somites
-
Which type of articulation is located between vertebral arches?
Symphysis
-
The cell bodies of the gustatory fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in which ganglion?
Geniculate
-
Which suboccipital muscle rotates the atlas on the axis?
Obliques Capitus Inferior
-
The TVP forms the attachment for which of the following muscles?
Levator Scapulae
-
Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement?
Lateral Corticospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement to distal extremities?
Ventral Corticospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts mediate equilibrium?
Olivospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts controls posterior musculature above T6 & anterior musculature below T6?
Reticulospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for the flexors of the proximal upper limbs?
Rubrospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts controls the reflex from vision & hearing that turns the head?
Tectospinal
-
Which of the following motor tracts controls medial extensor muscles of the back?
Vestibulospinal
-
The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of what muscle?
Levator Ani
-
The ocular motor nerve does not innervate which of the following muscles of the eye?
Superior Oblique
-
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?
4
-
Which of the following are the posterior columns responsible for?
- Conscious Proprioception
- Position Sense
- Two Point Discrimination
- Vibration
-
Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for touch & pressure?
Ventral Spinothalamic
-
Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for pain & temperature?
Lateral Spinothalamic
-
Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for unconscious proprioception of the upper extremities?
Dorsal Spinocerebellar
-
Which vertebral structure forms the superior & inferior borders of the IVF?
Pedicle
-
Vertebral formation is a result of which of the following?
Endochondral Os
-
Which receptors are not sensory to the epidermis?
Merkel’s Endings = Deep Touch
-
The glabella is part of which of the following bones?
Frontal
-
The feature that is unique to the cervical spine is what?
Transverse Foramina
-
Which of the following cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve?
Ganglion Cells
-
The visual pathway does not include which of the following?
Medial Geniculate Body
-
Flexion of the hip is the primary action of which of the following muscles?
Psoas
-
The spinal nerve from L4-S3 forms which of the following nerves?
Sciatic
-
What structure is located between the articulating surfaces of the TMJ?
Articular Disc
-
The carotid canal goes through which bone?
Temporal
-
Fast conducting axons are made of ________ fibers with a _______diameter.
Myelinated, Large
-
Which of the following ligaments has attachments to the disc?
PLL
-
The embryological development of the extensor muscles is derived from which of the following?
Epimeric Mesoderm
-
Due to the positioning of the ligaments a disc herniation will go?
Posteroloateral
-
What is the name of the ligament that connects the external occipital protuberance with the spinous process of C7?
Nuchal Ligament
-
Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic foramen?
Sacrospinous
-
The coupling action of lateral flexion with _____________ is due to the orientation of mid-cervical articular facets?
Contralateral Rotation
-
Which of the following attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible?
Temporalis Muscle
-
Which structure lies between the temporal & sphenoid bones?
Foramen Lacerum
-
Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
Adrenal Medulla
-
Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ which of the following cells?
Bipolar
-
The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?
Fasciculus Gracilis
-
The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?
Corticospinal
-
Which portion of the lumbar vertebra is between the superior & inferior articular process?
Pars Interarticularis
-
Which of the following peduncles connects the pons to the hindbrain?
Middle Cerebellar
-
Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?
Spinal Accessory (CN XI)
-
Which of the following is derived from dura mater?
Sclera
-
Which of the following comprise the white rami communicantes?
Preganglionic Sympathetics
-
Which of the following supplies stimulation to the zygopophyseal joints?
Dorsal Rami
-
Which of the following cranial nerves supply muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch?
Trigeminal (CN V)
-
The carotid tubercle is located on which vertebra?
C6
-
Which of the following is an auditory receptor?
Organ of Corti
-
The cerebellum & pons are part of which primitive structure?
Rhombencephalon
-
Which of the following types of glial cells form myelin around the axons of the central nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
-
Which of the following bones undergoes intramembranous ossification?
Parietal
-
The final synapse for the somesthetic sensory neurons is located in the ___________.
Thalamus
-
The dorsal root ganglion, autonomic ganglion, & schwan cells are derived from which of the following embryonic structures?
Neural Crest
-
The dorsal lateral fasciculus does not transmit sensation of _______.
Pain
-
The limbic system is not responsible for which of the following?
Initiation of Muscle Contraction
-
The long thoracic nerve innervates which of the following muscles?
Serratus Anterior
-
On which part of the rib is the costal groove located?
Shaft
-
Which of the following is the pathway for conscious proprioception in the brainstem?
Medial Lemniscus
-
The gray mater of the spinal cord primarily consists of ___________.
Nerve Cell Bodies
-
Which muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3 through C6?
Semispinalis Muscle
-
The anterior superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 is the sacral _________.
Promontory
-
Which of the following structures is found in the cistern of the lumbar region of the spine?
Cauda Equina
-
Which of the following structures does not attach the axis to the occipital bone?
Denticulate ligament
-
The spinothalamic & medial lemniscal tracts send neurons through the thalamus to which of the following gyri?
Post Central
-
The superior cerebral vein drains into which of the following?
Superior Sagittal Sinus
-
At the level of the T4 & T5 vertebra, which structure is located anteriorly on the sternum?
Angle of Louis
-
Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve?
Posterior Digastric
-
The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?
Fascicules Gracilis
-
The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?
Corticospinal
-
Which of the following structures is a continuation of the ligamentum nuchae?
Supraspinous Ligament
-
Axons in the olfactory tract originate from ___________ cells.
Mitral
-
Which of the following contains the inferior orbital fissure?
Sphenoid Bone
-
Which of the following is transmitted through the foramen ovale?
Mandibular Nerve
-
The crista ampularis is a feature of which of the following?
Semicochlear Duct
-
Cerebrospinal fluid is normally contained within the _________space.
Subarachnoid
-
What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbars?
Anterior & Lateral
-
Which of the following cranial nerves originates from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?
Facial (CN VII)
-
Which of the following cranial nerves goes through the cribiform plate?
Olfactory (CN I)
-
The gray rami communicantes contain which of the following fibers?
Postganglionic Sympathetics
-
The most common direction for a disc to herniate is ___________.
Posterolateral
-
The internal jugular vein drains which of the following?
Sigmoid Sinus
-
At which level of the spinal cord is the conus medularis found?
L1-L2
-
Which cell will extend from the premotor cortex all the way down the spinal cord?
Pyramidal Cells
-
The trigeminal nerve travels through the cerebrospinal fluid via which cistern?
Pontine
-
Which of the following vertebra have a pair of full costal facets & 1 pair of demi facets?
T1
-
Which of the following arteries supply the pons?
Basilar Artery
-
The superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament is the __________________?
Tectorial Membrane
-
A posterior ponticle results from calcification of which of the following ligaments?
Posterior Atlanto-Occipital
-
Which of the following cervical vertebra does not have a bifid spinous process?
C7
-
Which ligament attaches the TVP of L5 to the iliac crest?
Superior band of the Iliolumbar Ligament
-
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscles of the eye?
Trochlear (CN IV)
-
Which of the following supplies cutaneous innervation to the low back?
Posterior Primary Rami
-
Which of the following is excitatory to the pars compacta of the substantia nigra?
Glutamate
-
At the tip of the lateral aspect of the dens there are 2 small grooves for the attachment of which of the following?
Alar Ligament
-
The clivus is composed of the sphenoid bone & the _________.
Occipital Bone
-
The splenius capitis muscle inserts into which of the following?
Mastoid Process
-
What is the function of the emissary vein?
Connects the Inracranial Venous Sinuses with the outside Cranium
-
There is no intervertebral disc in which of the following locations?
C1-C2
-
The uncus & amygdyloid receive fibers from the ____________.
Olfactory Bulb
-
The joint between the occiput & C1 is which type?
Condylar
-
Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the medial pterygoid muscle?
Trigeminal (CN V)
-
Which of the following segmental levels comprises the phrenic nerve?
C3, C4, C5
-
The vertebral arteries enter the skull through which foramen?
Foramen Magnum
-
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve synape @ the ___________ ganglion.
Ciliary
-
What is the location of the vertebral venous plexus?
Epidural Space
-
Which of the following ligaments is broadest in the cervical region?
Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
-
Innervation of the deltoid muscle is derived from which of the following spinal areas?
C5-C6
-
Microglial cells are derived from which of the following?
Mesenchymal Cells
-
The 2nd spinal nerve exits between ______ & ______.
C1, C2
-
Tic doulourtex is associated with what?
Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
-
Primary innervation to the rhomboids is from which vertebral level?
C5
-
The inguinal ligament lies inferior to which of the following?
External Oblique Muscles
-
What is the structure located between the spinous process & the TVP?
Lamina
-
What type of joint is a costovertebral joint?
Synovial
-
Joints with hyaline cartilage are known as what type(s)?
Synchondrosis & Diarthrodial
-
What is the most common displacement of the nucleus pulposes?
Posteriolateral
-
The middle meningeal artery passes through ___________.
Foramen Spinosum
-
Which of the following muscles does not attach to the first rib?
Scalenes Posterior
-
The inion is a landmark of what bone?
Occipital Bone
-
Where is the anterior clinoid process located?
Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid
-
The axial skeleton is derived from ___________.
Somatic Sclerotome
-
Pars Interarticularis is located where?
Between Superior & Inferior Articular Processes
-
Which of the following has a bifid spinous process?
C4
-
Thoracic vertebras have how many synovial articulations?
10
-
Name the rib that connects thoracic vertebra and has a full set of articular facets?
10th Rib
-
The intermedial sacral crest is formed by fusion of the ___________.
Articular Processes
-
Accessory processes of lumbar vertebra arise from the junction of ________ & _______.
TVP’s & Pedicles
-
The posterior portion of the IVF is formed by __________________.
Articular Processes
-
Borders of the vertebral canal include which of the following?
PLL & Flava Ligaments
-
Which of the following maintain the normal spatial relationship between the odontoid process & the atlas?
Cruciform Ligament
-
Uncinate processes are located on which of the following?
Cervical Vertebra
-
Which of the following attaches to the scapula?
Pectoralis Minor
-
Which of the following muscles is deepest in the abdominal wall?
Transverse Abdominus
-
Which of the following is located @ the inferior border of the external oblique muscle?
Inguinal Ligament
-
Which of the following is not part of the pelvic diaphragm?
Piriformis Muscle
-
Which of the following is not part of the formation of the central tendon of perinues?
Ischial Canvernosus Muscle
-
Which of the following is supplied by the trochlear nerve (CN IV)?
Superior Oblique Muscle
-
Which of the following is not innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII)?
Masseter
-
Which of the following is the most superficial muscle of the neck?
Splenius Capitis Muscle
-
Which of the following innervates psoas major?
L1-L3
-
Which of the following muscles protrude the tongue?
Genioglossus
-
Which of the following attaches to the anterior portion of the TVP’s?
Quadratus Lumborum
-
Which of the following is attached to a midline process?
Multifidus Muscle
-
Where is the Medial Lemniscus located?
Medulla
-
What is the function of the posterior obliques capitis muscle?
Attaches C1 to the Occiput
-
What innervates levator scapulae?
Posterior Primary Rami
-
Pressure in the IVD occurs during ___________.
Compression
-
What is the range of motion most restricted in the thoracics?
Extension
-
Articular facet orientation in the lumbars is most restricted in ___________.
Rotation
-
What type of joints are zygopophyseal joints?
Diarthrodial Joints
-
What type of joint is the sternoclavicular?
Diarthrodial
-
Articulations of the sphenoid bone with other bones form what?
Fibrous Joints
-
What does the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL), attach to?
Vertebral Bodies
-
What attaches the dens to the anterior part of the foramen magnum?
Apical Ligament
-
Which of the following attaches to the lamina of adjacent vertebra?
Ligamentum Flava
-
Articular facets of the lumbar spine are angled @ _____ to the transverse plane.
90
-
Where do the Posterior Columns & the Spinothalamic Tracts merge?
@ The Medial Lemniscus
-
Name the temporomandibular joint ligament that attaches to the lingula of the mandible?
Sphenomandibular Ligament
-
The sacrotuberous ligament is continuous with the ________________________.
Dorsal Sacroiliac Ligament
-
Where is the carotid tubercle located?
C6 TVP
-
Branches of the _______________ supply the anterior fasciculus.
Anterior Spinal Artery
-
What does the interventricular foramen of Monroe connect?
3rd & 4th Ventricles
-
Which of the following produces cerebrospinal fluid?
Choroid Plexus
-
The choroid plexus is composed of vascularized ____________.
Ependymal Cells
-
The most important synapse in the CNS is ____________.
Axodendritic
-
Maintaining consciousness & awareness is a function of the ________________.
Reticular Formation
-
Spinothalamic tracts are all found where?
In the same area of the Spinal Cord
-
Facets in the thoracic spine are directed ______________.
Coronally
-
Which of the following are separated by the coronal suture?
Parietal & Frontal Bones
-
What passes through foramen rotundum?
Maxillary Nerve
-
Foramen Spinosum contains the __________________.
Middle Meningeal Artery
-
Obstruction of the foramen of Monroe would produce a pressure build up where?
Lateral Ventricles
-
Where do pyramidal tracts decussate?
Medulla
-
Name all of the cranial nerves that are parasympathetic?
CN III, VII, IX, X
-
What part of the vertebra bears the greatest amount of weight?
Body
-
The optic nerve (CN II), exits the cranial vault via the ____________.
Optic Canal
-
Which of the following fibers direct pain?
Free Nerve Endings
-
What splanchnic nerve is derived from spinal nervesT10-T11?
Lesser Splanchnic Nerve
-
Globus pallidus will transmit information to the ___________.
Cortex
-
Cerebro, ponto & cerebellar tracts are involved in the ____________.
Coordination of Movements
-
The tectospinal tract is responsible for ______________.
Rotation of the Cervical Spine
-
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates the ________________.
Levator Palpebrae Superioris
-
The 4th ventricle is continuous with the _________________.
Subarachnoid Space
-
The Nuchal ligament is a continuation of the _____________.
Supraspinous Ligament
-
Which part of the vertebra contains the groove for the vertebral artery?
Posterior Arch
-
At which vertebral level does the vertebral artery enter the spine?
C6
-
The posterior chamber of the eye is located between the _____ & _____?
Iris & Lens
-
What cervical nerve root innervates the base of the skull to the vertex of the skull?
C1-C2
-
Which bone contains Perilymph?
Petrous part of the Temporal Bone
-
The posterior groove on the odontoid process is for what ligament?
Transverse
-
Destruction of the posterior columns results in loss of __________.
Vibration Sense
-
What is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus Pulposis
-
The spinal cord is widest at which of the following?
-
Normal orientation of the thoracic TVP’s is _______________.
45 Posteriolateral
-
Auditory fibers are contained in the _____________________.
Lateral Lemniscus
-
What is an example of a fibrocartilage joint?
Symphysis
-
Apophyseal joints use which structures for articulation?
Articular Processes
-
The superior petrosal vein drains into the ______________.
Sigmoid Sinus
-
The climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate in the ____________.
Olivary Nucleus
-
Somatic visceral primary neurons are derived from ______________.
Neural Crest Cells
-
Inability to move the jaw laterally would indicate damage to the ______________.
Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
-
Which of the following muscles is derived from the 3rd brachial arch?
Stylopharyngeus
-
Which of the following is confluent with the central canal of the spinal cord?
4th Ventricle
-
Which of the following areas has no rods or cones?
- A. Fovea
- B. Macula
- C. Periphery of the Retina
- D. Optic Disc
-
What are the 2 functions of the ear?
Hearing & Balance
-
Physiological extension of the lumbar spine ________ the IVF’s & __________ the spinal canal.
Shortens, Shortens
-
Which of the following is responsible for initiation of spoken language?
Inferior Frontal Area (Brain)
-
The clivus is on the ____________.
Sphenoid Bone
-
Internal arcuate fibers are part of the __________________.
Corticospinal Tract
-
Which of the following decussates in the anterior white commissure?
Spinothalamic Tract
-
Which of the following is responsible for detection of angular motion?
Cristae Ampularis
-
The multifidus is most pronounced in the __________ area.
Lumbar
-
Which of the following is located in the posterior chamber of the eye?
Vitreous Humor
-
Which of the following is located on the cribiform plate?
Olfactory Nerve (CN I)
-
The sacral plexus lies anterior to the ______________.
Piriformis Muscle
-
Which of the following is a branch from the posterior cord of segments C5-C6?
Axillary Nerve
-
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is derived from which of the following vertebral levels?
L2-L3
-
The cingulate gyrus is part of the ___________.
Limbic System
-
The sympathetic nervous system is found from T1 to L2 & originates from the ______________________.
Intermediolateral Cell Column
-
The nucleus pulposis is a remnant of the __________.
Notochord
-
The epineurium is a continuation of the ____________.
Dura Mater
-
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of the _____________.
Vertebral Artery
-
What are the sacral splanchnic nerves considered to be?
Preganglionic Sympathetics
-
Name the nuclei responsible for pain?
Substantia Gelatinosa
-
What is the termination point for the spinothalamic tract?
Ventral Posteriolateral Nucleus of the Thalamus
-
Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the intermediate sacral crest are the _______________.
Articular Pillars
-
Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the median sacral crest are ________________.
Spinous Processes
-
Imbrication (facet jamming) is most commonly seen @ what vertebral level?
T5-T8
-
Which of the following passes through foramen spinosum?
Middle Meningeal Artery
-
Which of the following connects to the tympanic membrane?
Malleus
-
Which of the following supply the lateral cerebrum & the temporal lobe of the brain?
Middle Cerebral Artery
-
A branch of the _____________ supplies the anterior spinal cord.
Vertebral Artery
-
The anterior horn of the lateral ventricles comes into contact with the __________________________.
Head of the Caudate Nucleus
-
A lesion on which of the following nerves causes Bell’s palsy?
Facial (CN VII)
-
Medial deviation of the eye results from damage to which of the following muscles?
Lateral Rectus
-
Which of the following develops from the metencephalon?
Cerebellum & Pons
-
Which of the following are considered transducers of the ears?
Hair Cells
-
Which of the following innervates the scalenus anterior muscle?
Ventral Primary Rami
-
The muscles of mastication are derived from ______________.
Somatic Mesoderm
-
What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?
Synovial
-
The radiating, expanding processes that connect capillaries or neurons are called ______________.
Astrocytes
-
Which of the following is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
Musculocutaneous Nerve
-
The optic nerve (CN II), synapses on which of the following?
Lateral Geniculate Body
-
Which of the following supplies the lateral temporal lobe of the brain?
Middle Cerebral Artery
-
Dentate ligaments attach to the ___________.
Dura Mater
-
Which of the following are projections of pia mater?
Dentate Ligaments
-
The atlas-axis articulation is considered to be a _____________.
Pivot Joint
-
Flexion & extension of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.
Sagittal Plane
-
Lateral flexion of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.
Coronal Plane
-
Which of the following runs along the atlas TVP?
Suboccipital Nerve
-
Which of the following does the posterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?
- Semispinalis
- Splenius Capitis
- Splenius Cervicis
-
Which of the following does the anterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?
Levator Scapulae
-
Damage to which of the following nerves would result in loss of the ability to plantar flex the foot?
Tibial Nerve
-
Which of the following ligaments hold the dens in place?
Transverse Ligament
-
Which of the following is part of the cervical plexus?
- Ansa Cervicalis
- Lesser Occipital
- Phrenic
-
What is the orientation of the superior facets in the lumbar spine?
Sagittal
-
What is the orientation of the inferior facets in the lumbar spine?
Sagittal (also)
-
The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of ____________.
Levator Ani
-
Which of the following are responsible for detecting insignificant vibration?
Pacinian Corpuscles
-
Which of the following supply innervation to the taste buds of the epiglottis?
Vagus (CN X)
-
The IVF’s are located inferior to the ___________.
Pedicles
-
The spinocerebellar tract carries __________________.
Unconscious Proprioception
-
The gracilis & cuneatus tracts carry _______________.
Conscious Proprioception
-
Which of the following is the final point of synapse for olfaction?
Uncus of the Temporal Lobe
-
Which of the following separates the occipital & parietal lobes?
Lambdoidal Suture
-
The IVD is considered which type of joint?
Symphysis
-
Which of the following lies in the epidural space?
Venous Plexus
-
The olfactory nerve (CN I), passes through which of the following bones?
Ethmoid
-
The scalene tubercle is located where?
1st Rib
-
The oral cavity of the esophagus is lined with _________________.
Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium
-
Which spinal tract is for voluntary motor control?
Corticospinal
-
Which of the following represents the middle layer of the meninges?
Arachnoid
-
Transverse sinus crosses which 2 cranial bones?
Occipital & Temporal
-
Which of the following deep layers of back muscle is most medial?
Spinalis
-
Fusion of the __________ form spinous processes.
Lamina
-
Fibers of the ___________ project & synapse @ the uncus & hippocampus.
Olfactory Bulb
-
Which of the following cells synapse deep within the cerebellum?
Purkinje
-
What are type C fibers responsible for?
Nociception
-
The articular facets of the 3rd rib articulate superiorly with ________.
T2
-
The adult spine is derived from which of the following embryonic spinal cord structures?
Gray Mater
-
The mamillary processes are on which part of the lumbar vertebra?
Superior Articular Facets
-
The S1 facets face in which direction?
Dorsomedial
-
Which of the following vertebra have the smallest TVP?
T12
-
When the mouth opens wide the TMJ disc moves ____________.
Anterior
-
Which of the following ligaments prevent lateral flexion of the spine?
Intertransverse
-
The femoral nerve innervates which of the following?
Vastas Lateralis
-
Which of the following is a continuation of the dorsal primary root of C2?
C1
-
Which of the following spinal levels innervate the thumb?
C6
-
Which of the following is the dermatome of the umbilicus?
T10
-
The nerves of olfaction synapse on which of the following nuclei?
Mitral Nucleus
-
Which of the following transmits information into the uncus?
Olfactory Bulb
-
Which of the following is not a cerebellar function?
Initiation of Voluntary Movement
-
The lumbar plexus forms in which structure?
Psoas Major
-
Which of the following are formed from occipital myotomes?
Muscles of the Tongue
-
What are the spinal pyramids a part of?
Medulla Oblongata
-
What does the cerebellum arise from?
Rhombencephalon
-
Which of the following cells produces CSF?
Ependymal Cells
-
Which of the following drains the aqueous humor of the eye?
Canal of Schlem
-
Which of the following provides sensation to the nape of the neck?
Lesser Occipital Nerve
-
The hypothalamus is derived from the _____________.
Diencephalon
-
Which of the following is the end of the spinal cord?
Conus Medularis
-
The anterior parahippocampal gyrus supplies the _________.
Uncus
-
Which of the following ligaments attach the head of a rib to the vertebra?
Radiate
-
The lateral spinothalamic tract decussates where?
Anterior White Commissure
-
Where is the sella tursica found?
Sphenoid Bone
-
Which of the following is a macrophage of the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
-
Geniculate bodies are located in the ___________.
Thalamus
-
The posterior 1/3 of the tongue tastes which flavor?
Bitter
-
S2 –S4 are considered to be ______________.
Preganglionic Parasympathetic
-
The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates which of the following muscles?
Levator Palpebrae Superioris
-
The posterior inferior serratus is innervated by the ________________________.
Lower 4 Intercostal Nerves
-
The IVD is composed of which type of cartilage?
Fibrocartilage
-
The median sacral crest is formed by remnants of the ____________.
Spinous Processes
-
The stapes is derived from which embryological structure?
2nd Brachial Arch
-
Endolymph flows through the ________________.
Temporal Bone
-
The transitional vertebra from the cervicals to the thoracics is ____.
C7
-
Damage to the pons will affect which of the following cranial nerves?
Trigeminal (CN V)
-
Striae of the cochlea produce ___________.
Perilymph
-
Which of the following cranial nerves provides sensory innervation to the paranasal sinus?
Trigeminal (CN V)
-
The superior gluteal nerve supplies which of the following?
- Gluteus Medius
- Gluteus Minimus
- Tensor Fascia Lata
-
What is the prominence on the superior facet of the lumbar vertebra?
Mamillary Process
-
The uncinate processes of C3-C7 are located where?
Vertebral Bodies
-
Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the buccinator muscle?
Trigeminal (CN V)
-
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
Mylohyoid
-
The internal capsule separates the lenticulate nucleus from the ___________.
Caudate Nucleus
-
The articular processes between 2 thoracic vertebras make up what type of joint?
Planar or Gliding
-
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the platysma?
Facial (CN VII)
-
Which of the following ligaments prevents forward displacement of the IVD?
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
-
Which of the following guides flexion & extension in the cervical spine?
Uncinate Processes
-
Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit or eye socket?
Temporal Bone
-
Which of the following muscles forms part of the anterolateral pelvic wall?
Obturator Internis
-
The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is @______.
C7
-
Which of the following vertebra has dual demi facets & dual costal facets?
T4
-
Which of the following is not on the temporal bone?
Temporal Line
-
Which of the following is a continuation of ligamentum nuchae?
Supraspinous Ligament
-
Where do climbing fibers of the cerebellum originate?
Olivary Nucleus
-
Where does the lacrimal gland drain?
Inferior Meatus of the Nasal Fossa
-
Where are the inferior & superior vertebral notches located?
Pedicles
-
Which of the following muscles depress the lower 4 ribs?
Serratus Posterior Inferior
-
The Intermediolateral cell column between T1 & L2 receives innervation from ___________.
Sympathetic Nerves
-
Where is the insertion point for splenius capitis?
Mastoid Process
-
Compression of the IVD is least during which spinal movement?
Rotation
-
Which of the following are synovial joints?
- Costovertebral
- Sternoclavicular
- TMJ
-
Which of the following separates 2 shallow grooves, which traverse the superior edge of the 1st rib?
Scalene Tubercle
-
Which of the following has paired full costal facets & paired demi facets?
T1
-
Which of the following innervates vastus lateralis?
Femoral Nerve
-
Somites are composed of which of the following?
- Mesoderm
- Myotome
- Sclerotome
-
Which of the following do sensory reflexes travel through?
Gray Mater
-
Fibrocartilage unites bone in the _________ & ___________.
IVD & Symphysis
-
Which of the following is a primary flexor of the lumbar spine?
Rectus Abdominus
-
Which of the following is a macrophage of the brain?
Microglial Cell
-
Which of the following is a sinus that drains directly into the internal jugular vein?
Sigmoid Sinus
-
Which of the following is most responsible for lateral flexion in the lumbar spine?
T12-L1
-
Which of the following is the embryological structure that the thymus is derived from?
3rd Pharyngeal Arch
-
Which of the following does not close the IVF?
Flexion
-
Where are hair cells of the ear located?
Macula
-
Where do 2nd order fibers for the sensation of facial pain come from?
Trigeminothalamic Tract
-
A unilateral hemorrhage of the anterior cerebral artery will cause a functional problem where.
Contralateral Lower Extremity
-
The sternal angle is @ the transverse plane of the _____________.
4th Thoracic Disc
-
How are superior articular facets of a typical lumbar vertebra oriented?
Medially
-
How are superior articular facets of a typical thoracic vertebra oriented?
Coronal
-
How are superior articular facets of a typical cervical vertebra oriented?
Oblique
-
Extensor musculature of the spine gets its nerve supply from where?
Dorsal Primary Rami
-
What does the sacrotuberous ligament restrict?
Flexion
-
Which of the following is the carotid tubercle a feature of?
C6
-
The vertebral artery passes through the ________________.
Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament
-
Which is the most lateral erector spinae muscle?
Iliocostalis
-
Which of the following is part of the auditory tract?
Trapezoid Body
-
Which of the following forms part of the boundary of the vertebral canal?
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
-
Which of the following is responsible for loss of short-term memory due to emotion or trauma?
Limbus
-
Which of the following supply blood to the motor speech area of the brain (Broca’s Area)?
Middle Cerebral Artery
-
Paralysis of the abducent nerve (CN VI) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.
Medial
-
Paralysis of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.
Downward
-
The cribiform plate is located on the __________ bone.
Ethmoid
-
The __________________ innervates serratus anterior.
Long Thoracic Nerve
-
The muscles of mastication are derived from where?
Mesoderm of the 1st Pharyngeal Arch
-
Which of the following contain Type A motor nerve axons?
Ventral Root
-
The semicircular canal develops as an outgrowth of the _________.
Utricle
-
Which of the following cranial nerves has its origin in the medulla oblongata?
Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
-
A lesion in the_________________ causes Parkinson’s.
Substantia Nigra
-
Which of the following are nerves from the conus medularis?
Cauda Equina
-
The center for voluntary control of eye movement is located where?
Frontal Lobe of the Brain
-
Which of the following makes up part of the hard palate?
Maxilla
-
The hyoid is attached via a ligament to the _________ portion of the temporal bone.
Styloid
-
The _________ does not articulate with the temporal bone.
Maxilla
-
Where are primary afferents located?
Dorsal Nerve Root
-
Where are primary efferents located?
Ventral Nerve Root
-
What does the femoral nerve supply?
Quadriceps
-
Where does the femoral nerve arise?
Ventral Rami of L2-L4
-
Which of the following is the attachment point for splenius capitis?
Mastoid Process
-
Where are sensory cell bodies of the spinal nerves found?
Dorsal Root Ganglion
-
If the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is damaged, which gland will lose its function?
Parotid Gland
-
Which of the following are efferent cerebellar nerve cells?
Purkinje Cells
-
Which of the following does the peroneal branch of the pudendal nerve innervate?
Ischiocavernosus
-
Which of the following is the embryological structure that the notochord is derived from?
Mesoderm
-
Which of the following ligaments restricts rotation of the atlas-axis joint?
Alar Ligament
-
Which of the following forms the border of the lesser sciatic foramen?
Sacrotuberous Ligament
-
Which of the following originates on the anterior aspect of the sacrum?
Piriformis
-
Which of the following are responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production in the brain?
Ependymal Cells in the Lateral Ventricles
-
Which of the following is a major source of blood to the primary visual cortex?
Posterior Cerebral Artery
-
Which of the following is a major source of blood to the brainstem?
Basilar Artery
-
Which of the following form the anterior division of the lumbar plexus?
L1-L3
-
Which of the following is a continuation of the supraspinous ligament?
Ligamentum nuchae
-
Where does the lumbar cistern end?
S2
-
Where is the medulla oblongata located?
Myelencephalon
-
Where is the pons located?
Metencephalon
-
Where is the cerebellum located?
Metencephalon
-
Where is the cortex located?
Telencephalon
-
Where is the midbrain located?
Mesencephalon
-
Where is the red nucleus located?
Mesencephalon
-
Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Facial (CN VII)
-
Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
-
Which of the following cranial nerves originate from the midbrain?
Oculomotor (CN III)
-
The joints of Von Luschka are located @ which vertebral level(s)?
C3-C7
-
Which of the following is a continuation of the PLL?
Membrane Tectoria
-
Which of the following is a middle erector spinae muscle?
Longissimus
-
Which dermatome supplies the skin over the clavicle?
C4
-
Which of the following is unique to the cervical spine?
Transverse Vertebral Foramen
-
Which of the following cranial nerves is the geniculate ganglion involved with?
Facial (CN VII)
-
The submandibular ganglion supplies the submandibular gland via the ________________.
Facial Nerve (CN VII)
-
What is the principal motion(s) of the occiput on C1?
Flexion & Extension
-
Which of the following lies in the arcuate foramen?
Suboccipital Artery & Nerve
-
Which of the following attaches to the anterior tubercle of the atlas?
Longus Coli Muscle
-
Which of the following neurons are located in the cribiform plate?
Bipolar
-
The pyramidal cells of Betz are located in the ____________.
Precentral Gyrus
-
The dorsal funiculus includes which of the following structures?
Fasciculus Gracilus
-
Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
Adrenal Medulla
-
Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?
Spinal Accessory (CN XI)
-
Inflammation of the parotid gland inhibits which of the following nerves?
Facial (CN VII)
-
Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ ___________ cells.
Bipolar
-
Failure of the pupil to constrict when stimulated by a bright light indicates loss of integrity in which of the following?
Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
-
__________ cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve.
Ganglion
-
Flexion of the hip is the primary action of the ________ muscle.
Psoas
-
The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?
Occipital Somites
-
Preoptic somites give rise to which of the following?
Olfaction
-
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?
4
-
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many synovial joints?
10
-
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many articulations?
12
-
Which of the following ribs articulates with the sternal notch?
Rib #2 @ the level of T4
-
Which of the following ligaments would sustain damage in hyperextension of the cervical spine?
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
-
Inflammation around the Pisiform bone may affect which of the following nerves?
Ulnar
-
Which of the following are germ layers?
-
Which of the following arise from endoderm?
- Epithelium of the Respiratory Tract
- GI Tract
- Gut
-
Which of the following arise from mesoderm?
- Adrenal Cortex
- Cardiovascular System
- Genitourinary Serous Membrane
- Muscles of the Trunk
-
Which of the following arise from ectoderm?
- Adrenal Medulla
- CNS
- Epidermis
- Hair
- PNS
- Anterior Pituitary
- Retina
-
Which of the following is a support cell in the blood brain barrier?
Astrocytes
-
Which of the following is a macrophage?
Microglia
-
Which of the following lines the ventricles & makes CSF?
Ependymal Cells
-
Which of the following makes myelin in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
-
Which of the following make myelin in the PNS?
Schwann Cells
-
How many lobes does the cerebellum have?
3
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina I?
Incoming Dorsal Roots
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina II?
Substantia Gelatinosa
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina III & IV?
Nucleus Proprius
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina IV?
- Nucleus Proprius
- Basal Spinal Nucleus
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina V?
Corticospinal Tract
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina VI?
Primary Sensory Neurons
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina VII?
Intermediolateral Cell Column – T1L2
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina VIII?
Descending Tracts
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina IX?
Large Motor Neurons
-
Which of the following is located in Lamina X?
Gray Commissure
-
Name the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?
- Flocculonodular Lobe
- Anterior Lobe
- Posterior Lobe
-
What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum?
Equilibrium
-
What is the function of the anterior & posterior lobes of the cerebellum?
Coordination
-
Which of the following is a relay station & contains sensory fibers?
Thalamus
-
Which of the following controls balance, equilibrium, & involuntary coordination?
Cerebellum
-
Which of the following are cerebellar nuclei?
- Dentate
- Emboliform
- Fastigial
- Globus (2)
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