microbiology.txt

  1. MICROBIOLOGY
  2. A mannitol salt augar is used for ______________.
    Staphylococcus
  3. Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits ___________.
    Transformation
  4. Which of the following are negri bodies seen in?
    Rabies
  5. Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity?
    Rapid availability of protection
  6. Which of the following release interleukin II?
    T-lymphocytes
  7. Which of the following does a virus cause?
    Measles
  8. Which of the following describes destruction of all microorganisms?
    Sterilization
  9. Fever blisters are associated with which of the following?
    Herpes Simplex Type I
  10. Which of the following is an acid-fast bacterium?
    Mycobacterium
  11. Which of the following is coagulase positive?
    Staph aureus
  12. Which of the following has no cell wall?
    Mycoplasma
  13. Peritrichous is a pattern of ____________.
    Flagella
  14. Which of the following causes yaws?
    Treponema pertenunez
  15. A rapid loss of fluids is associated with which of the following?
    Cholera
  16. Which of the following is Reye’s Syndrome associated with?
    Influenza
  17. Which of the following is associated with mononucleosis?
    Epstein Barr
  18. Which of the following causes atypical primary pneumonia?
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  19. Which of the following causes Osteomyelitis?
    Staph aureus
  20. Which type of milk is the most apt to cause disease?
    Raw
  21. Which of the following organisms causes hemorrhagic jaundice?
    Leptospira ictohemorrhagiea
  22. A throat culture predominantly pinpoints beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs & chains, which are bacitracin sensitive, & not bile soluble is indicative of which of the following pathogens?
    Strep pyogenes
  23. Antibodies are synthesized & released by which of the following cells?
    Plasma Cells
  24. The best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea is which of the following?
    Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)
  25. If a urine sample contains white blood cells, white blood cell casts & bacteria it would indicate which of the following?
    Acute Pyelonephritis
  26. Which of the following does the greatest damage to the ozone layer?
    Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
  27. Trismus is a characteristic finding in which of the following?
    Tetanus
  28. Which of the following cell types contain heparin?
    Basophil
  29. Which part of complement is the 1st to affix to the cell membrane?
    C3B
  30. Which of the following produces helper substances?
    CD4
  31. Which infection predisposes a child to Reye’s Syndrome?
    Influenza
  32. Which of the following bacteria transmit drug resistors?
    Plasmids
  33. Which of the following cause hookworm disease?
    Necator americans
  34. Which of the following cause pinworm disease?
    Enterohius vermicularis
  35. Which of the following cause round worms?
    Ascariasis lumbricoides
  36. Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta & provides passive immunity to the fetus?
    IgG
  37. Which of the following cell types work together with T-lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens & stimulate antibody production?
    Macrophages
  38. Which of the following government agencies is not a part of the US Public Health Service?
    Communicable disease Center
  39. Which of the following diseases cause weight loss, abdominal pain & mucous diarrhea & lasts for more than 3 days?
    Giarada
  40. Which of the following is responsible for lymes disease?
    Borrelia burgdorferi
  41. Which of the following etiological agents causes epidemic typhus?
    Rickettsia prowazeki
  42. Which genera are responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?
    Escherichia (E. coli)
  43. Which of the following parasites causes blackwater fever?
    Plasmodium falciparum
  44. Which factor is responsible for making influenza pandemic?
    Antigenic Shift
  45. Which of the following routes transmits mycoplasma hormone?
    Sexual
  46. ____________ causes childhood dysentery.
    Coxsackie Virus B
  47. _________ is a eukaryotic organism.
    Protozoa
  48. The DPT vaccine offers which type of immunity?
    Artificial Active
  49. Organism of which genera usually cause allergic reactions?
    Aspergillus
  50. Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
    Bacterium
  51. ______ is the usual cause of bladder infections.
    E. coli
  52. ________ is the immunoglobulin, which can be detected, early in an infectious process.
    IgM
  53. Motor viruses primarily affect which system?
    Nervous
  54. Which of the following most commonly causes impetigo contagious?
    Streptococcus pyogenes
  55. Blue green pus in a wound indicates the presence of which of the following organisms?
    Pseudomonas aeriginosa
  56. What is the most common organism to affect a patient with AIDS?
    Pneumocytstic carinii
  57. The helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide belongs to which genera?
    Schistosoma (found in water)
  58. ________ cells process antigen.
    Macrophages
  59. _________ can penetrate unbroken skin.
    Schistosoma mansoni
  60. Which of the following does a vector not transmit?
    Fever
  61. Which of the following is a result of the reaction between soluble antigen & a specific antibody?
    Precipitation
  62. Vitamin B12 deficiency often results from which worm infestation?
    Diphyllobothrium latum
  63. Organisms from which genera are used as antigen in the diagnosis of Rickettsia disease?
    Proteus
  64. Destroying the larva of parasites from the genera Ascariasis, Schistosoma & Trichinella is a distinctive function of ___________.
    Eosinophils
  65. Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?
    Staph aureus
  66. Which parasite is most apt to infect the person who has been walking barefoot in a pile of feces?
    Necatur americans
  67. Which of the exhibits a gray pseudomembrane?
    Diphtheria
  68. Pasteurization is complete when the ___________ organism has been killed.
    Brucellosis
  69. What is the purpose of pasteurization?
    To stop the growth of Bacteria
  70. Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?
    Pus Formation
  71. Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?
    Leptospira interrogans
  72. Which of the following causes Legionnaire’s Disease?
    Bacteria
  73. Which of the following sexually transmitted organisms causes Pelvic Inflammatory Disease & infertility?
    Chlamydia trachomatis
  74. Which of the following causes Bacillary Dysentery?
    Shigella
  75. What is a common characteristic of diphtheria?
    Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane
  76. Which of the following increases when a parasitic infection is present?
    Eosinophils
  77. Which of the following is the primary pathological consequence of Malarial infection?
    Erythrocyte Destruction
  78. Which of the following diseases is a result of phage induction in Staphylococci?
    Osteomyelitis
  79. Bacterial capsules are generally composed of a high molecular weight. Which of the following is one?
    Polysaccharides
  80. Respiratory syncytial virus is the major cause of Bronchiolitis & Pneumonia in which of the following?
    Infants
  81. Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik spots?
    Rubella
  82. Bacteria which grows @ 55c or higher are known as __________.
    Thermophile
  83. Which of the following organisms cause hard black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?
    Piedri hortae
  84. Which of the following is primarily found in hard water?
    Calcium, Magnesium & Salts
  85. Which of the following conditions is caused by Clostridium perfungies?
    Gas Gangrene
  86. Which of the following immunoglobulins mediates type I hypersensitivity reaction?
    IgE
  87. Which of the following has been implicated in river blindness?
    Onchocerca
  88. The Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine provided immunity against which of the following?
    Tuberculosis
  89. What is the virus that causes Gengivostomatitis?
    Herpes Simplex I
  90. Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?
    Respiratory Inhalation
  91. Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge & burning?
    Neisseria gonorrhea
  92. Influenza pandemic occurs because of which of the following?
    Antigenic shift
  93. Which of the following parasites causes Cysticercosis?
    Taenia solium
  94. Which of the following increases the immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?
    Immunoglobulins
  95. Which of the following is associated with an encapsulated Diplococcus?
    Neisseria
  96. Chlorinated hydrocarbons that are stored in the bone can be most destructive to which of the following?
    CNS
  97. Which of the following organisms is most responsible for fecal contamination of water?
    E. coli
  98. Which of the following sources of water contain the most sulfur?
    Rain Water
  99. Which of the following is the step before flocculation in water treatment?
    Filtration
  100. Which of the following elements is prevalent in significant amounts in ground water?
    Radon
  101. Which of the following cells in the plasma contain interleukin II?
    T-lymphocytes
  102. Which of the following is involved in the transmission of Hepatitis A?
    Ingestion
  103. The causative agent of ringworm is a ______________.
    Fungus
  104. Which of the following organisms cause thrush?
    Candida albicans
  105. Coccidioidomycosis is a fungus that affects which of the following?
    Lungs
  106. Which of the following can aggravate C-3?
    Plasmin
  107. Which of the following is found in the infectious stage of Necator americanus?
    Trophozoite
  108. Which of the following cells produce interleukin I?
    Mononuclear Phagocytes
  109. Which of the following cells produce Histamine?
    Mast Cells
  110. Scolex on a tapeworm is for which of the following?
    Attachment to Intestinal Mucosa
  111. Transmission of Herpes II from mother to newborn is _____________.
    Perinatal
  112. Secondary amoebic infection will spread to which organ?
    Liver
  113. What causes Otitis media?
    Hemophiles influenza
  114. Conjugation involves which of the following structures?
    Pilus
  115. What is the cause of a heroin addict who has fever, tremors, muscles spasms & red streaks over the injection site?
    Strep pyogenes
  116. Which of the following causes stomach ulcers?
    Helicobacter pylori
  117. Which of the following is the vector of St. Louis encephalitis?
    Mosquito
  118. Which of the following is found in farmers who breathe in hay or grain dust?
    Farmers Lung
  119. Ringworm is diagnosed using which of the following?
    Ultra Violet (woods lamp)
  120. In what phase do bacteria divide @ a constant rate?
    Log
  121. Which of the following is the Vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
    Tick
  122. What has been responsible for the greatest increase in life expectancy?
    Control of Infectious Disease
  123. Which of the following is most apt to be found in a muscle biopsy?
    Trichimonis
  124. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
    Shigella (contaminated soil)
  125. Zehl Nelson stain is used to detect which of the following?
    Acid Fast Bacilli
  126. Which of the following diseases is spread via the fecal/oral route?
    Polio
  127. Which of the following strains of E. coli cause travelers diarrhea?
    Entertoxogenic
  128. Schistosoma affects what part of the body?
    Blood
  129. Which of the following causes fungal infection of the lung?
    Histoplasmosia & Coccidiomycosis
  130. Which of the following causes acute Osteomyelitis?
    Staph aureus
  131. Clostridium ___________ causes gas gangrene & myconecrosis.
    Perfringens
  132. Which of the following is a process by which colloidal particles settle out from solution?
    Flocculation
  133. Penicillin acts by preventing formation of _______ in bacteria.
    Peptioglycans
  134. Which of the following pathogens causes Colitis secondary to antibiotic treatment?
    Clostridium difficile
  135. Which of the following is in saliva & tears?
    IgA
  136. Which of the following U.S. Government Agency compiles data on outbreaks of disease?
    CDC (center for disease control)
  137. Which of the following is a cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
    Strep viridians
  138. Epidemic parotitis is associated with ___________.
    Mumps
  139. What organism causes diphtheria?
    Bacterium
  140. What cells produce antibodies in response to an antigen?
    Plasma Cells
  141. What is the most common hookworm in the U.S.?
    Necator americanus
  142. Tetanus toxoid neutralizes _________________.
    Circulating Toxins
  143. Active digestion of organic material occurs @ which stage of sewage treatment?
    Trickling
  144. Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall?
    Mycoplasma
  145. Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for lab experiment standards?
    NIH (nation institute of health)
  146. Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia?
    Mycoplasma pneumonia
  147. Erythromatous ring seen in scarlet fever comes from which of the following?
    Strep
  148. Which organism is responsible for common form food poisoning?
    Staph aureus
  149. Trypansoma gambiense primarily affects what?
    Brain
  150. Which of the following cells produces Interleukin II?
    T-Helper Cells
  151. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most predominant in the neonate?
    IgG
  152. Which scientist is credited with bacterial transformation?
    Griffith
  153. Recent outbreaks from E. coli are due to which of the following?
    Enteropathogenic
  154. The incidence of disease is best defined as the total number of ____________.
    New Cases Appearing In A Given Time
  155. What type of food poisoning is obtained from improperly canned foods?
    Botulism
  156. Which of the following is toxic, does not have DNA, but still has protein?
    Prion
  157. Which of the following organisms causes Rheumatic Fever?
    Group A Lancefield
  158. Hepatic Whitlow occurs in which of the following?
    Fingers
  159. Which of the following agencies writes & publishes literature?
    WHO
  160. Salk vaccine is considered to be ______________.
    Inactive Polio
  161. How does UV radiation destroy organisms?
    Destroys The DNA
  162. Which of the following causes Scalded Skin Syndrome?
    Staph aureus
  163. When there is an epidemic spread of a disease which of the following is most important?
    The Vector
  164. Which of the following transmits Hepatitis A?
    Fecal/Oral
  165. Which of the following causes rice water stools?
    Cholera
  166. Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat resistant strains of Staph aureus?
    Vancomycin
  167. Iodine used in gram staining is considered a __________.
    Modant
  168. Which of the following causes symptoms similar to Mono?
    Cytomegalovirus
  169. Which of the following produces a toxin that does not allow Ach to be released @ the myoneural junction?
    Clostridium tetani
  170. Which of the following is catalase & coagulase negative?
    Staph aureus
  171. Which of the following parasites is found around the anus & is detected by the scotch tape test?
    Enterobius vermicu
  172. Which of the following is the most common PID?
    Neisseria gonorrhea
  173. Exposure to chickenpox & measles will impart which of the following immunities?
    Natural Active
  174. Which of the following is the organism most responsible for urinary tract infection?
    E. coli
  175. Trypanosonia cruzi is the organism that causes ______________.
    Chagas Disease
  176. The etiological agent of Lymes Disease is _______________.
    Borrelia Burgdorferi
  177. Which of the following is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
    IgE
  178. Salmonella poisoning is most commonly due to ingestion of ______ & ________.
    Eggs & Poultry
  179. Which process has contributed to the decline in the incidence of food poisoning?
    Proper Cooking
  180. Which organism most commonly affects AIDS patients?
    Fungus
  181. Lymphocytes release _________ in response to a viral infection.
    Interferon
  182. Which of the following is a causative agent in smallpox?
    Variola
  183. Candylomata lata are found in what stage of Syphilis?
    Secondary
  184. Which of the following is used to measure sewage contamination?
    Coliforms
  185. Which of the following Rickettsia diseases is found in contaminated milk?
    Q Fever
  186. Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction?
    B-Lymphocytes
  187. What is the most common way to be infected by Toxoplasmosis?
    Feline Feces
  188. The presence of a red streak that appears along the course of a blood vessel would indicate development of ____________.
    Bacteremia
  189. Which of the following is the Federal Agency that sets lab standards?
    NIH
  190. The ELISA Test is for ________.
    AIDS
  191. Which of the following Federal Agencies sets the standards for the work place?
    OSHA
  192. Which of the following has pear shaped double nuclei & 4 pair of flagella?
    Giardia lamblia
  193. Which of the following Federal Agencies funds research?
    NIH
  194. Which of the following is a characteristic of Staph aureus?
    Active & Invasive Opportunist
  195. What zoonosis disease do spores spread?
    Anthrax
  196. What is the mode of transmission for German Measles?
    Respiratory Droplets
  197. Which scientist is responsible for the prevention of food borne disease?
    Pasteur
  198. Which of the following Government Agencies focuses on biomedical research?
    NIH
  199. A 10 year old with a stiff neck, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, 104 temperature, tachycardia & meningitis without a rash has what?
    Equine encephalitis
  200. Which of the following results in passive naturally acquired immunity?
    Breast Feeding
  201. What is the 1st line of human cellular defense against viral infection?
    Humoral Response
  202. Which bacteria are primarily responsible for spontaneous abortion in cattle?
    Brucclia
  203. What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?
    Intestine
  204. Which of the following consumes inorganic material?
    Autotroph
  205. The brain & the peripheral nervous system produce which of the following immunoregulatory chemicals?
    • Interleukin I (macrophage)
    • Gamma Globulins (B-cells)
  206. Which of the following does Herpes Simplex Type II cause?
    Genital Herpes
  207. The rash caused by Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever originates in which of the following areas of the body?
    Ankles & Wrist
  208. Which of the following conditions are caused by Staph aureus?
    • Carbuncles
    • Emphentygo
    • Osteomyelitis
    • Scalded Skin Syndrome
    • Toxic Shock
  209. A mature adult parasite makes its permanent home in the ______________.
    Definitive Host
  210. The common cold is spread via _________.
    Air
  211. AIDS virus attacks which of the following?
    CD4 & Cytotoxic T-Cells
  212. What is the most common fungal condition in the Ohio Valley & Mississippi Valley areas?
    Histoplasmosis
  213. Protozoa are found in water in which of the following forms?
    Cyst Form
  214. What is the function of a bacterial capsule?
    Prevents Bacterial Phagocytosis
  215. Delayed hypersensitivity is _______________.
    Cell Mediated
  216. Which of the following fluoresces under light?
    Pseudomonas aeriginosa
  217. Which of the following is associated with childhood dysentery?
    Coxsackie Virus
  218. What is the most likely outcome of a Hepatitis A Virus infection?
    Full Recovery
  219. What is the most likely cause if a patient presents with blurred vision, 103 temperature, fever, diarrhea, & headache?
    Clostridium botulinum
  220. What is the mode of transmission for Wool Sorters Disease?
    Inhalation of Bacillus anthrax spores
  221. Trismus (lock jaw) is caused by which of the following?
    Clostridium Tetani
  222. Extrinsic asthma is characterized by increased _____________.
    Serum IgE Levels
  223. What is the most common cause of lead poisoning in the U.S.?
    Industrial Waste
  224. Parasitic infections will increase which of the following?
    Eosinophils
  225. What type of immunity is imparted to a person who has taken DPT vaccine?
    Artificial Active
  226. Ingestion & digestion of solid foods by cells of the body is ____________.
    Phagocytosis
  227. Which of the following causes Baciliary dysentery?
    Shigella
  228. Iodine functions as a ______________ in gram staining procedure.
    Mordant
  229. Which of the following causes Thrush?
    Candida albicans
  230. Which of the following is Acid Fast?
    Mycobacterium
  231. Which of the following causes blue-green pus?
    Pseudomonas aeriginosa
  232. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to determine acid-fast bacilli?
    Ziehl Nielson
  233. What is the function of a bacterial capsid?
    Protects Nuclear material
  234. What is the probable cause of a 4 year old that presents with upper respiratory infection, pharyngitis, laryngitis, a red pharynx, & a 102 fever?
    Hemophilus influenza
  235. What is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea?
    Reovirus
  236. Antibodies, which provide immunity against Streptococcus pneumoniae, react with the __________________.
    Capsular Polysaccharide
  237. What is the best way to test for Typhus?
    Blood
  238. What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?
    Sandfly
  239. Negri bodies are found in ____________.
    Rabies
  240. Which of the following does not produce an exotoxin?
    Baciliary dysentery
  241. Which of the following produce exotoxin?
    • Clostridium tetani
    • Staph aureus
    • Strep pyogenes
  242. Water borne infections are derived mostly from _______________.
    Giardia lamblia
  243. Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following?
    Pathogenic Staph
  244. How is Hepatitis Virus vaccine produced?
    Synthetically Manufactured
  245. A patient with koplik spots probably is infected with what?
    Rubella
  246. A Darkfield microscope is used to identify which of the following?
    Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
  247. Coliform count is used to detect which of the following?
    Inadequate Sewage Disposal
  248. Microorganisms that live @ 20-45 C are classified as which of the following?
    Mesophiles
  249. BCG vaccine is used to prevent which of the following?
    TB
  250. Who is the scientist responsible for categorizing Streptococci?
    Lancefield
  251. Which of the following produces hard, red, non-painful lesions on the penis?
    Syphilis
  252. Which of the following is responsible for San Joaquin Valley Fever?
    Coccidiodes immitis
  253. Which portion of the body is most affected by the Herpes Virus?
    Nervous System
  254. What is the most common method of transmission for hookworm infection?
    Through the Skin
  255. Precipitation from solution in the form of fleecy masses is the definition for which of the following?
    Flocculation
  256. Which of the following carries Equine encephalitis?
    Mosquito
  257. What is the worst form of malaria?
    Plasmodium falciparum
  258. Plasmodium fits into which of the following categories?
    Protozoa
  259. A severe lack of both B & T lymphocytes is associated with which of the following?
    Leukemia
  260. Retrovirus is typically ____ to ______.
    RNA, DNA
  261. Which of the following is the reason that the FDA requires pasteurization of eggs across state lines?
    To Prevent Salmonella
  262. The Fluke known as Paragonia westermani is found in the _______.
    Lung
  263. A rash on the hands & feet is characteristic of which of the following?
    Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  264. Which of the following does not display immunoglobulin?
    Type IV
  265. Ascariasis lumbricoides is transmitted via which of the following?
    Fecal/Oral
  266. Mast cells are most closely correlated with which of the following?
    Basophiles
  267. Which of the following is not fully funded by the Federal Government?
    CDC
  268. Genital Herpes is associated with which of the following?
    Type II Herpes
  269. Herpes Simplex I is associated with which of the following?
    Sores
  270. Which of the following fungi cause jock itch?
    Tinea cruris
  271. The largest portion of air pollution in the U.S. comes from _______________.
    Carbon Monoxide
  272. Which of the following organisms is associated with Lymes disease?
    Borrelia burgdorferi
  273. Which of the following have flagella @ both ends?
    Peritrichous
  274. Vibrio cholera will produce which of the following?
    Water & Mucous in the Stool
  275. Which of the following is associated with inflammation of the nerves in the face & brain?
    Herpes
  276. What is the secondary step in sewage treatment?
    Use of Microorganisms to Digest Materials
  277. Which of the following cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
    Rickettsia rickettsia
  278. Chloride plus water results in which of the following?
    Hydrochloric Acid
  279. Putting in ____________ cleans a septic tank.
    Microorganisms
  280. Which of the following is an immune complex performed by the body?
    C1-C4-C3-C5
  281. Delayed hypersensitivity is associated with which of the following?
    Type IV Cell Mediated Response
  282. What is the diagnosis for a 30-year-old male who presents with a fever & skin lesions that appear as eccentric rings on the trunk?
    Lymes Disease
  283. Which of the following is associated with Gas Gangrene?
    Clostridium perfringens
  284. Which of the following does a vector not transmit?
    Q Fever
  285. Which of the following is associated with the common cold?
    Rhinovirus
  286. Hemophilus influenza is most dangerous for ____________.
    Newborns
  287. Shigella causes which of the following?
    Bacillary dysentery
  288. Rose-colored spots on the abdomen are associated with which of the following?
    Salmonella Typhosa
  289. T-helper cells activate which of the following?
    B-lymphocytes
  290. Which of the following immunological reactions does not display immunoglobulin response?
    Type IV
  291. What is the fungus that affects the body?
    Tinea corporis
  292. Which of the following can spread the common cold?
    Air & Fomites
  293. A foul smelling fishy discharge is associated with which of the following?
    Gardenella Vaginalis
  294. What are plantar warts caused by?
    Virus
  295. Which of the following is the diagnostic test for Tb?
    Mantoux
  296. Which of the following spreads epidemic typhus?
    Body Lice
  297. What is the etiological agent that causes epidemic typhus?
    Rickettsia prowazeki
  298. What are the genera responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?
    E. coli
  299. Which of the following cause Black Water Fever?
    Plasmodium falciforum
  300. How is Mycoplasma homonis transmitted?
    Sexually
  301. Which of the following is a Eukaryotic organism?
    Protozoa
  302. Which genera cause allergic reactions?
    Aspergillus
  303. Which of the following causes whooping cough?
    Bacterium
  304. Which of the following is detected earliest in the infection process?
    IgM
  305. Motor viruses primarily affect which of the following?
    Nervous System
  306. Impetigo contagiosa is most commonly caused by ____________.
    Strep pyogenes
  307. What is the most common organism to affect a person with AIDS?
    Pneumolcystis carinii
  308. Which of the following is the Helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide?
    Schistosoma
  309. Which of the following cells process antigen?
    Macrophages
  310. Which of the following can penetrate unbroken skin?
    Schistosoma mansoni
  311. Which of the following results in a reaction between a soluble antigen & a specific antibody?
    Precipitation
  312. Which of the following causes a B12 deficiency?
    Diphyllobothrium latum (fishworm)
  313. A throat culture that produces pinpoint beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs & in chains, which are bacitracin sensitive & not bile soluble, would indicate which of the following?
    Strep pyogenes
  314. Antibodies are synthesized & released by which of the following?
    Plasma Cells
  315. What is the best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea?
    Chocolate Agar
  316. If a urine sample has WBC’s, WBC casts, RBC’s & Bacteria in it you should investigate for which of the following?
    Acute Pyelonephritis
  317. Which of the following contain heparin?
    Basophiles & Mast Cells
  318. Which is the 1st part of the complement to affix to the cell membrane?
    C3B
  319. Which of the following produces helper substances?
    CD4
  320. Which of the following infections predisposes a child to Reye’s Syndrome?
    Influenza
  321. Which of the following transmits drug resistors?
    Plasmids
  322. Which of the following cause hookworm disease?
    Necator americanus
  323. Which of the following crosses the placenta & provides passive immunity to the fetus?
    IgG
  324. Which of the following work with T-Cells to recognize foreign antigens & stimulate antibody production?
    Macrophages
  325. Which of the following is not part of the U.S. Public Health Services?
    CDC
  326. Which of the following causes weight loss, abdominal pain, mucous diarrhea & lasts for more than 3 days?
    Giardia lamblia
  327. Which of the following is TB in the spine?
    Pott’s
  328. What is the envelope around the capsid derived from?
    Host Cell Membrane
  329. What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?
    Intestine
  330. Which of the following causes a fungus ball in the lung?
    Aspergillus
  331. Where does the highest number of anaerobic bacterial growth occur in sewage treatment?
    Sludge
  332. Which of the following is associated with the causative agent of mononucleosis?
    Epstein Barr
  333. Which of the following causes hemorrhagic jaundice?
    Leptospira ictohemorrhagea
  334. Which of the following is associated with encapsulated diplococcus?
    Neisseria
  335. Chlorinated hydrocarbons that enter the body through the bone can be most destructive to the ___________.
    CNS
  336. Which of the following water sources contain the most sulfur?
    Rain Water
  337. What is the step subsequent to (after) flocculation in water treatment?
    Sedimentation
  338. What are the steps of water treatment in order?
    Flocculation, Sedimentation, Filtration, Aeration
  339. At what stage is backwashing used in drinking water treatment?
    Filtration
  340. Which of the following is present in significant amounts in ground water sources?
    Radon
  341. Which cells in plasma contain interleukin II?
    T- lymphocytes
  342. Where do malarial parasites reproduce?
    Inside RBC’s
  343. Which of the following can activate C3?
    Plasmin
  344. Which of the following is found in the infective stage of Necator americanus?
    Trophozoite
  345. Which of the following is a result of phage induction in Staphylococcus?
    Osteomyelitis
  346. Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of bronchiolitis & pneumonia in which of the following?
    Infants
  347. What is the etiological agent of mononucleosis?
    Epstein Barr
  348. A patient from South America presents with coffee ground vomiting & severe nosebleeds. He relates a history of severe headaches for the past 4 days, jaundice, body aches, insomnia & nausea. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
    Yellow Fever
  349. Bacteria which grow @ 55C or higher are _____________.
    Thermophiles
  350. Which of the following cause black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?
    Piedri hortae
  351. What are the properties of Streptococcus as a result of lysogenic conversion?
    Erythrogenic Toxin
  352. Which Federal Agency regulates the management of hazardous waste?
    EPA
  353. Which of the following mediate Type I hypersensitivity reactions?
    IgE
  354. Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine (BCG) provides immunity against which of the following?
    TB
  355. Which virus causes gengivostomatitis?
    Herpes Simplex I
  356. Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?
    Inhalation
  357. Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge & burning?
    Neisseria gonorrhea
  358. Which of the following causes cysticercosis?
    Taenia solium
  359. What is the most common cause of death in the U.S.?
    Heart Disease
  360. What would be the diagnosis for a child who presents with a rash around the buttocks due to a parasitic condition?
    Enterobius vermicularis
  361. What is the most common symptom of Cholera?
    Rice Water Stools
  362. Which of the following is the vector for Western Equine Encephalitis?
    Mosquito
  363. A gray pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is associated with which of the following?
    Diphtheria
  364. Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?
    Pus Formation
  365. Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?
    Leptospira interrogans
  366. Fungi imperfecti are so named because of what reason?
    No Sexual Spores
  367. Which of the following is a common characteristic of diphtheria?
    Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane
  368. What is the primary pathological consequence of malaria?
    Erythrocyte Destruction
  369. What is the primary allergen to which a child reacts in barley, rye & wheat?
    Gluten
  370. The toxoid for tetanus produces which of the following forms of immunity?
    Artificial Active
  371. The TB skin test represents which of the following responses?
    Type IV Delayed
  372. Which of the following kills all microbes?
    Autoclaving
  373. Which of the following do mites transmit?
    Scabies
  374. What substance found in milk determines if pasteurization has been properly accomplished?
    Phosphatase
  375. Where does a mature tapeworm live?
    Small Intestine
  376. What is the diagnosis for a person who has just moved to Arizona & develops a dry cough associated with climatic conditions?
    Coccidiomycosis
  377. Which of the following passes through the placenta?
    IgG
  378. Which of the following is most prevalent?
    IgG
  379. Which of the following best describes the TB test?
    Delayed Hypersensitivity
  380. Which of the following supplies money to local doctors for research?
    NIH
  381. What is the stage of water purification that removes most of the bacteria?
    Sedimentation
  382. Which type of sterilization is most suited for instruments used in surgery?
    Moist Heat
  383. What does an excessive amount of fluoride in drinking water cause?
    Mottled Teeth
  384. Which of the following is a fungus of the scalp?
    Tinea Capitis
  385. Which of the following is most dangerous to newborns?
    Staph aureus
  386. What is the most common way that Legionnaire’s disease is spread?
    Respiratory Droplets
  387. Which of the following causes Chaga’s disease?
    Trypanosoma cruzi
  388. A patient presents with normal body temperature, widespread muscle spasm & muscle guarding in the abdominal area. What do these symptoms suggest?
    Botulism
  389. Type IV delayed immunological reaction will affect which of the following?
    Lymphocytes
  390. What do T-helper cells activate?
    B-lymphocytes
  391. What is the best test to perform to determine the pollution of water?
    Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
  392. Which of the following is an example of a Type I reaction?
    Bronchial Asthma
  393. Which of the following is an immunoglobulin associated with Type I?
    IgE
  394. Which immunoglobulin is found in Gastric Mucosa?
    IgA
  395. Methyl gas causes cancer of the __________.
    Kidney
  396. There is no vaccine for which of the following?
    Rhinovirus
  397. Cook pork to avoid which of the following?
    Trichinella spiralis
  398. Antibodies respond to antigens via _____________.
    B-lymphocytes
  399. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
    IgG
  400. Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type II hypersensitivity?
    IgG & IgM
  401. Which of the following has both endotoxin & exotoxin?
    Shigella dysentery
  402. Pink Eye is associated with which of the following?
    Haeomphilus aegypticus
  403. Which of the following is an air-borne carcinogen?
    Benzopyrene
  404. Which of the following is associated with infant botulism?
    Raw Honey
  405. Which of the following has been eliminated from society?
    Variolla
  406. Which of the following secrete histamine?
    Basophiles
  407. What is the result of warm moist heat on cell membranes?
    Protein Denaturization
  408. Which types of Hepatitis can you get from a blood transfusion?
    Hepatitis B & C
  409. Soap added to a sterilizing agent will do which of the following?
    Increase The Bacteriocidal Potential
  410. Who is considered to be the father of immunology?
    Pasteur
  411. Which of the following is associated with muscle spasms & calcification of skeletal muscle?
    Trichimonis spiralis
  412. Which of the following produce the most circulating antibodies?
    Plasma Cells
  413. Infant methemoglobinemia is due to which of the following?
    Nitrate
  414. Which of the following is a lung disease due to iron dust inhalation?
    Siderosis
  415. The most effective sterilization technique in a lab is ___________.
    Autoclaving
  416. Which of the following is an air pollutant that causes headaches & dizziness?
    Carbon Monoxide
  417. Contaminated milk transmits which of the following?
    Q Fever
  418. Herpes Simplex does not create which of the following?
    Lifetime Immunity
  419. Flocculation is involved in which of the following?
    Colloid Aggregation During Sewage Treatment
  420. Bladder infections are most commonly due to which of the following?
    E. coli
  421. Opsonins, agglutinins, lysins, & precipitins are which of the following?
    Antibodies
  422. Which of the following diminishes riboflavin?
    Milk Left Standing in Light
  423. Black death is due to which of the following?
    Yersenia pestis
  424. Which of the following can be found in unpasteurized milk?
    Brucella abortis
  425. Why are flu vaccines sometimes not effective?
    Different Strains
  426. Why is a vaccine for the common cold not feasible?
    The multiplicity of it
  427. What type of organism uses molecular O2 as the final electron acceptor?
    Obligate Aerobe
  428. An autotroph consumes which of the following?
    Inorganic Materials
  429. Neisseria gonorrhea can be best identified in which of the following?
    Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)
  430. Childhood dysentery is due to which of the following?
    Coxsackie Virus
  431. Safarin is used in which staining technique?
    Gram Stain
  432. Herpes Simplex produces a latent infection where?
    Nervous System
  433. What is the purpose of iodine use in gram staining?
    Fixer (mordant)
  434. A virus capsid is made up of which of the following?
    Protein
  435. Which of the following are classified by their method of locomotion?
    Protozoa
  436. What is the test to determine whether or not complete pasteurization has been achieved?
    Phosphatase Test
  437. Q Fever is due to which of the following?
    Coxiella burnetti
  438. What is the name of the serology test for Rickettsia?
    Weil felix
  439. Histoplasma is a fungal infection that mimics which of the following?
    TB
  440. Bacterial cell walls are made up of __________________.
    Peptidoglycans
  441. What is iodine used for in pre-op?
    Disinfectant
  442. Lymph node enlargement is not associated with ________.
    Cholera
  443. The heaviest & largest immunoglobulin is ____.
    IgM
  444. Microbial pollution is eliminated via which of the following?
    Sand Filtration
  445. Who discovered yellow fever?
    Reed
  446. Chymosis (bruising) is seen with which of the following?
    Scurvy
  447. Which of the following increases immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?
    Immunoglobulins
  448. Which of the following can cross the placenta & affect the fetus?
    Rubella
  449. Exotoxins can act upon ____________ cell walls.
    Phospholipid
  450. Which of the following contributes to environmental problems?
    Automobiles
  451. Which of the following is an arbovirus?
    Western Equine Encephalitis
  452. Penicillin affects bacteria by interfering with synthesis of ______________.
    Peptidoglycans
  453. The kissing bug causes which of the following?
    Chaga’s Disease
  454. The State Health Department is responsible for maintaining which of the following?
    Mortality Rates
  455. Where are nosocomial infections acquired?
    Hospitals
  456. Why is chlorine added to treated sewage?
    To Destroy Residual Microbes
  457. Red spots on the face are associated with which of the following?
    Cutaneous Anthrax Infection
  458. Streptobacillus is the agent of which of the following?
    Rat Bite Fever
  459. The sedimentation stage of water purification removes most of the _________.
    Bacteria
  460. Anaphylaxis is associated with which of the following?
    Type I Hypersensitivity
  461. Which of the following organisms oxidize inorganic matter for energy?
    Autotrophs
  462. Which of the following organisms require organic matter for energy?
    Heterotrophs
  463. Which of the following use dead decaying matter for energy?
    Saprophytes
  464. Which of the following feed on living matter for energy?
    Parasites
  465. Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which 1 or both benefit?
    Symbiosis
  466. Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit?
    Mutualism
  467. Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit & both accomplish what neither can do alone?
    Synergism
  468. Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which one benefits, & the other is unaffected?
    Commensalism
  469. Which of the following are tests for syphilis?
    • Darkfield
    • Kahn
    • Kline
    • TPI
    • VDRL
    • Wasserman
  470. Which of the following are tests for tuberculosis?
    • Acid Fast = Ziehl Nielson Stain
    • BCG = TB vaccine
    • Mantoux Test
    • Tine Test
  471. Which of the following are pasteurization methods?
    • Flash
    • Holding Method
    • Ultrahigh Method
Author
ecav
ID
26509
Card Set
microbiology.txt
Description
microbiology
Updated