Guide to Patient Assessment and Module Test

Three main components of patient assessment:

Important thing prior to scene size up:

Six components of the scene size up:

When does spinal immobilization start?

Nine components of the primary assessment:

When is LOC determined?

Four components of determining LOC:

What is the mnemonic for determining responsiveness during the primary assessment?

What is the next step if a patient is unresponsive or if breathing is absent or agonal during the primary assessment?

Two aspects of airway assessment during the primary assessment:

Two aspects of breathing assessment during the primary assessment:

Four aspects of circulation assessment during the primary assessment:

Something to consider when assessing airway during the primary assessment:

Two things to consider when assessing breathing during the primary assessment:

What should you consider when assessing circulation during the primary assessment?

Two aspects of the transport decision:

Patients are divided into one of two categories during the secondary assessment:

The primary assessment is also known as the ____ assessment.

Two components of the secondary assessment:

Five components of the secondary assessment of a responsive medical/minor trauma patient:

OPQRST:

SAMPLE:

Five components of a vitals check during secondary assessment:

Three things to assess when examining eyes:

Three things to assess when checking respirations:

Three things to assess when checking pulse:

At what oxygen percentage is oxygenation necessary?

Five components of the secondary assessment of a major trauma/unresponsive medical patient:

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:
A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him.
B. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.
C. place him in a supine position and open his airway.
D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

Which of the following is the LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children?
A. skin condition
B. capillary refill
C. blood pressure
D. heart rate

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
A. heart
B. liver
C. muscle
D. kidneys

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?
A. bronchioles
B. larynx
C. lungs
D. esophagus

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
B. agonal respirations.
C. eupneic respirations.
D. ataxic respirations.

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
A. 75%
B. 45%
C. 65%
D. 55%

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate
the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should:
A. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure.
B. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding.
C. ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.
D. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:
A. alveolar sacs.
B. apex of the lung.
C. bronchioles.
D. pulmonary capillaries.

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen
cylinder?
A. ball-and-float flowmeter
B. pressure-compensated flowmeter
C. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
D. vertical-position flowmeter

The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is:
A. refusal to drink fluids.
B. vomiting and diarrhea.
C. internal blood loss.
D. high fever.

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?
A. a 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
B. a 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen
C. a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
D. a 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee

A subluxation occurs when:
A. a bone develops a hairline fracture.
B. a fracture and a dislocation exist.
C. a joint is incompletely dislocated.
D. ligaments are partially severed.

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 500
D. 1,500

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because:
A. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.
B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume.
C. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate.
D. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure.

When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to:
A. perform an in-depth physical exam prior to initiating any treatment.
B. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene.
C. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.
D. recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries.

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:
A. headache and edema.
B. dyspnea and bradycardia.
C. dysuria and constipation.
D. marked hypoglycemia.

Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs?
A. linear
B. compressed
C. basilar
D. open

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
B. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.
C. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.
D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.

When ventilating an adult with a BVM device without oxygen, the volume delivered with each breath should be approximately:
a. 7 ml/kg.
b. 10 ml/kg.
c. 15 ml/kg.
d. 18 ml/kg.

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:
A. in the driver's compartment.
B. inside the jump kit.
C. near the side or rear door.
D. on the ambulance stretcher.

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals
that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%.
A. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing.
B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
C. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
D. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway.

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
B. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury.
C. important medical history not previously given.
D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes  presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration.  Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:
A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
C. give her 100% oxygen, attach the AED, and transport immediately.
D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg aspirin, and assess her further.

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include:
A. salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea.
B. hypertension and severe pulmonary edema.
C. tachycardia, flushed skin, and unequal pupils.
D. dry mouth, dilated pupils, and headache.

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with high-flow oxygen connected.  What should be the oxygen inlet flow-rate standard?
a. 1-2 liters / minute
b. 6-8 liters / minute
c. 15 liters / minute
d. 20 liters / minute

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
A. pulmonary edema
B. dependent edema
C. flat jugular veins
D. labored breathing