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Oncology Patient Care- Mosby Board Review Questions

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  1. The normal platelet count for an adult is:
    • 250,000/cc
    • (140,00-400,000)
  2. The normal adult resting respiration is:
    20 breaths per  min
  3. The practice that helps reduce the spread of microorganisms is:
    medical asepsis (clean technique)

    • (Medical Asepsis - Clean - Reduces or inhibits number and growth of microorganism
    • Surgical Asepsis - Sterile - Eliminates all organisms, both pathogenic and non-pathogenic, including spores)
  4. The most common means by which infections are spread is by:
    direct contact
  5. The loss of hair after exposure to radiation is termed:
    epilation
  6. List 5 components of a low-residue diet:
    • 1)avoid raw vegies
    • 2)avoid foods high in fiber
    • 3)Avoid greasy foods
    • 4)eliminate caffeine
    • 5)increase fluids
  7. For an infection to spread it must have a way of entering the host such as through:(name 5)
    • 1)touching
    • 2)sexual contact
    • 3)kissing
    • 4)contaminated food
    • 5)air droplets
  8. DEFINE:
    asepsis
    absence of disease causing organisms
  9. DEFINE:
    medical asepsis
    • "clean technique"
    •  Reduces or inhibits number and growth of microorganism

    • examples of medical aseptic practices:
    • Antimicrobial agents, Performing hand
    • hygiene, Wearing hospital garments, Confining and containing soiled
    • materials appropriately, Keeping the environment as clean as possible
  10. DEFINE:
    Surgical asepsis
    "Sterile technique"- Eliminates all organisms, both pathogenic and nonpathogenic

    • techniques for sterilizing equipment:
    • Physical Sterilization: Radiation, Boiling Water, Free-Flowing Steam, Dry Heat, Steam Under Pressure
    • Chemical Sterilization: Peracetic Acid, Ethylene Oxide Gas
    • principles of surgical asepsis:
    • They preserve sterility by touching one sterile item with another that is sterile
    • - Once a sterile item touches something that is not, it is considered contaminated
    • - Any partially unwrapped sterile package is considered contaminated
    • - If there is a question about the sterility of an item, it is considered unsterile
    • - The longer the time since sterilization, the more likely it is that the item is no longer sterile
    • - A commercially packaged sterile item is not considered sterile past its recommended expiration date
    • - Once a sterile item is opened or uncovered, it is only a matter of time before it becomes contaminated
    • - The outer 1" margin of a sterile area is considered a zone of contamination
    • - A sterile wrapper, if it becomes wet, wicks microorganisms from its supporting surface, causing contamination
    • - Any opened sterile item or sterile area is considered contaminated if it is left unattended
    • - Coughing, sneezing, or excessive talking over a sterile field causes contamination
    • - Reaching across an area that contains sterile equipment has a high
    • potential for causing contamination and is therefore avoided
    • - Sterile items that are located or lowered below waist level are
    • considered contaminated because they are not within critical view
  11. DEFINE:
    contamination
    • The process by which something is rendered unsterile
    • The presence of an infectious agent on a body surface; also on or in clothes, bedding, toys, surgical instruments or dressings, or other
    • inanimate articles or substances including water, milk, and food, or that infectious agent itself.
  12. DEFINE:
    Disinfection
    Destruction of pathogenic microorganisms (usually spores) or their toxins or vectors by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents.
  13. DEFINE:
    antiseptic
    • An antiseptic is a substance which inhibits the growth and development of microorganisms.
    • For practical purposes, antiseptics are routinely thought of as topical agents, for application to skin, mucous membranes,and inanimate objects, although a formal definition includes agents which are used internally, such as the urinary tract antiseptics.
  14. DEFINE:
    sterilization
    the complete elimination or destruction of all living microorganisms.
  15. Match the following:
     1. diarrhea___              A.regular diet
     2. nausea___               B.clear fluids
     3. vomiting___             C.liquids only
     4. mucositis___            D.soft liquids
     5.dysphagia___             E. low residue
    • 1.diarrhea--E. low residue           
    • 2. nausea--B.clear fluids             
    • 3. vomiting--B.clear fluids           
    • 4. mucositis--C.liquids only         
    • 5.dysphagia--B.clear fluids,  D.soft liquids
  16. The ABC's of CPR are:
    airway, breathing, circulation
  17. Recap used needles?
    • NO!!
    • (don't recap needles-it is when most unintentional needle sticks occur)
  18. DEFINE:
    syncope
    fainting
  19. DEFINE:
    stroke
    (CVA)cerebrovascular accident
  20. What is bluish discoloration of the skin called?
    cyanosis
  21. Define:
    diaphoresis
    profuse sweating
  22. What is a cannula?
    A tube used to pass fluids, gases into/out of body
  23. An aggregation of blood is called a _____.
    thrombus
  24. What are symptoms of a partially obstructed airway?
    Labored, noisy, breathing, wheezing
  25. What is radiation recall?
    The recurrence of the radiation skin reaction when given certain chemo drugs. It can occur years after radiation.
  26. The care plan for a patient receiving around the clock narcotics should include what daily measures for preventing constipation.
    regular administration of mild laxatives
  27. The most common manifestation of infection in patients with cancer who are neutropenic is:
    fever
  28. If an area must be completely free of pathogens, you should follow:
    surgical asepsis
  29. Match:
    column A                  column B
    allergies                   benadryl
    heart arrhythmia       lidocaine
    hypertension             inderal
    cardiogenic shock      lanoxin
    • allergies:benadryl
    • heart arrhythmia: lanoxin    
    • hypertension:inderal            
    • cardiogenic shock:lidocaine
  30. All drugs given by parenteral route should be given by: Choose 1:(medical aseptic technique, surgical aseptic techniques)
    surgical aseptic techniques
  31. The range of normal respiration for adults is:
    10-20 breaths/min
  32. The normal adult oral temp is _____C.
    37 degrees centigrade
  33. The process by which all forms of microorganisms are destroyed is called:
    surgical asepsis
  34. The best means for preventing the spread i]of organisms is:
    HANDWASHING!!!
  35. TRUE/FALSE:
    A nosocomial infection is one that the patient has acquired at home.
    FALSE
  36. Withing 30 min of recieving  dose of asparginase, a pt experiences tightness of the chest, dyspnea, and nausea. These symptoms suggest:
    anaphylactic reaction
  37. The practice that helps reduce the spread of organisms is termed:
    asepsis
  38. The pt has a right to:(choose any or all)
    1)refuse medical treatment
    2)know the qualifications of the medical personnel
    3)Confidential treatment of medical records
    ALL of the above
  39. List the 5 rights of drug sfety:
    • 1)right patient
    • 2)right drug
    • 3)right dosage
    • 4)right frequency
    • 5)right route
  40. Name three routes for administering drugs:
    • 1)oral
    • 2)rectal
    • 3)intravenous

    (also transdermal, intramuscular, intraocular, submucosal, subcutaneous, intrathecal)
  41. List three important facts regarding oxygen therapy:
    • 1)keep away from flames
    • 2) don't pick up by valve or regulator
    • 3)don't stand up tank unless it is secured(don't want it to fall)
  42. What is dose for onset of skin reactions, and what are some interventions:
    • 30-40 Gy
    • 1)20 Gy erythema
    • 2)30 Gy dry desquamation
    • 3) 40 Gy wet desquamation
    • 4)50 Gy necrosis
    • keep clean and dry(wash with water and pat dry)
    • no cremes or lotions
  43. What is dose for onset of diarrhea, and what are some interventions:
    • 20-50 Gy
    • low residue diet, increase intake of fluids
  44. What is dose for onset of fatique, and what are some interventions:
    • dose=variable
    • rest, good nutrition, household help
  45. What is dose for onset of pain, and what are some interventions:
    dose is variable

    pain meds, meditation, communicate with doctor
  46. What is dose for onset of weight loss, and what are some interventions:
    • dose is variable
    • supplement with liquid nutrition
  47. What is dose for onset of nausea, and what are some interventions:
    • 10-30 Gy
    • antiemetics, avoid food odors, don't lie down withing 1st 30 min after eating
  48. What is dose for onset of mucositis, and what are some interventions:
    • 30-40 Gy
    • avoid hot and spicy foods, tums, Sucralfate(carafate)
  49. What is dose for onset of alopecia, and what are some interventions:
    • 20Gy
    • no shaving
  50. What is dose for onset of cystitis, and what are some interventions:
    • 30 Gy
    • increase liquids, antibiotics
  51. What is dose for onset of esophagitis, and what are some interventions:
    • 20 Gy
    • soft foods, small portions, soft liquids, antacids
  52. FOR STUDY:
    ONSET DOSES OR SIDE EFFECTS:

    10-30 Gy         Nausea
    20 Gy              alopecia, esophagitis
    20-50 Gy         diarrhea
    30 Gy              cystitis
    30-40 Gy         mucositis
    Variable           fatique, weight loss, pain
  53. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for anaphylactic shock:
    • Symptoms:itching, dyspnea, swollen lips, metallic taste, hives
    • Likely cause:allergic reaction to medication
    • Intervention:epinephrine
  54. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for cardiogenic shock:
    • Symptoms:weak rapid pulse, cold hands and feet, fatique, diaphoresis
    • Likely Cause:Heart attack
    • Intervention:Oxygen, intubation, ventilation
  55. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for hypovolemic shock:
    • Symptoms:rapid breathing, anxiety, clammy skin
    • Likely Cause:severe blood loss, internal bleeding
    • Intervention:replace blood and fluids
  56. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for pulmonary embolism:
    • Symptoms:unexplained shortness of breath,
    • likely cause:surgery, lying in bed for too long
    • intervention:heparin, wafarin
  57. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for hypoglygemia:
    • symptoms:anxiety, shaking, sweating, tremors, confusion
    • likely cause: low blood sugar
    • intervention:glucose injection
  58. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for hyperglycemia:
    • symptoms:excessive urine, excessive thirst, dehydration
    • likely cause: diabetes
    • intervention:fluid correction for dehydration, normalize blood sugar
  59. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for respiratory distress:
    • symptoms:difficulty breathing, tachypnea, abnormal breath sounds, cyanosis
    • likely cause: airway obstruction, allergic reaction
    • intervention: provide oxygen, elevate head
  60. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for cardiac distress:
    • symptoms:cold clammy skin, irregular pulse,cyanosis
    • likely cause: drug therpy, pre-existing conditions
    • Intervention: check ABC
  61. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for seizure:
    • symptoms:convulsion, inability to speak, visual hallucination
    • likely cause: head injury, heat stroke, infection, epilepsy
    • Intervention: protect from falling, loosen clothes around neck, place pillow under head, administer phenytoin
  62. Symptoms, likely cause, and intervention for syncope:
    • symptoms:loss of consciousness
    • likely cause: low blood pressure, hypoglycemia, circulating disorder
    • Intervention: help patient to ground, check vitals
  63. Define as pertains to medical ethics:Benefience:
    acts in best interest of patient
  64. define as pertains to medical ethics: nonmalfeasance:
    • DO NO HARM!!
    • assumes responsibility for professional decisions
  65. define as pertains to medical ethics: AUTONOMY:
    Autonomy is about a person's right to make their own decisions
  66. Define as pertains to medical ethics:JUSTICE:
    delivers care unrestricted by concerns of personal attributes(No discrimination)
  67. define as pertains to medical ethics:Veracity
    • Legal principle that states that a health professional should be honest and give full disclosure to the patient, abstain from misrepresentation or deceit, and report known lapses of the standards of care to the
    • proper agencies.(advances the principles of the profession)
  68. define as pertains to medical ethics:Confidentiality
    • The ethical principle or legal right that a physician or other health
    • professional will hold secret all information relating to a patient,
    • unless the patient gives consent permitting disclosure. (HIPPA)
  69. What is rationale for formulating and publishing a code of ethics?
    It ensures that both professional and general public are aware of what we have advocated as the expected, professional code of conduct.
  70. What acute side effects are expected during RT for brain mets and how can you assist pt in managing symptoms?
    • Expected side effects: epilation, erythema, slight dry desquamation
    •  
    • Protect from sun, no scratching or using razor, no chemical treatments to scalp, wash head with mild soap and lukewarm water. Recommend wigs, hats, or turbans
  71. For an adult pt, tachycardia is a heartbeat of:
    (fast heart beat)higher than 100 bpm

    normal is 60-80
  72. A drug that increases the flow of urine is called  a:
    diuretic
  73. What are professional ethics?
    a set of principles that govern a course of action
  74. Information about a patient must:
    always remain confidential
  75. If a manager asks you to perform a duty outside of your scope of duty, the best course of action is to:
    Explin that you do not have the education required and that feel uncomfortable
  76. An example of a potential source of infection would be:(pick any or all)
    1)co-worker with cold
    2)visitor with fever blisters
    3)PT with pneumonia
    all
  77. Health care workers control transmission of blood borne disease with what method>
    universal precautions
  78. The "scope of practice" for the radiation therapist:
    describes the responsibilities of the therapist
  79. In Latin, "fide" means:
    faithful
  80. A pt undergoing chemoradiation may complain of (select any or all)
    1)Fatique
    2)hYperpigmention
    3)bone and joint pain
    any of the above
  81. A pt complaining of constipation should be advised to(dietary recommendations):
    eat fresh fruit and  vegies
  82. Mismanagement of an acute side effect such as or mucositis may result in(pick any or all):
    1)painful ulcerations and oral bleeding
    2)compromised ability to speak
    3)compromised ability to take oral meds
    All of above
  83. Those patients treated with RT alone are at moderate to high risk for radiation induced nausea and vomiting would be those receiving radiation to the:
    upper abdomen and whole body
  84. Complementary measures for managing nausea and vomiting include all of the following except:
    1)Imagery
    2)Ginger root tables(??), tea
    3)Increasing intake of greasy food
    4)Exercise
    Increasing intake of greasy food
  85. Cancer cachexia is:
    progressive, involuntary weight loss
  86. Radiation to the pelvis may cause acute:
    proctitis
Author
jaxkaty5437
ID
262411
Card Set
Oncology Patient Care- Mosby Board Review Questions
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Oncology Patient Care- Mosby Board Review Questions
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