Airbus SPV RC7 2014

  1. ICAO requires all airlines to carry a copy of several different documents on board each airplane. All of these documents are in the __ or mounted somewhere in the airplane, usually in the cockpit.
    Cockpit Forms (Yellow) Book
  2. If a flow or checklist is preceded by the diamond symbol (◆), that item is accomplished only on the first flight of the day (i.e., the first flight entered into the FDML under the current day using __ __). 
    local time
  3. To easily identify when an additional MEL is required, or may be required, a __ __ __ at the top of the MEL page alerts the crew.
    reverse header alert
  4. The PWS Advisory, Caution and Warning alerts are inhibited during takeoff from __ knots until __ feet AGL.
    100 knots until 50 feet AGL.
  5. During the Safety & Power On Checklist, if battery voltage < 25.5V, a charging cycle of __ minutes is required.
  6. The Configuration Deviation List (CDL)
    program allows for the dispatch of an aircraft with certain parts that may be
    missing providing __ __ are followed. 
    performance limitations
  7. During the Safety & Power On Checklist, before starting the APU, ensure an __ __ __ is accomplished.
  8. A __ placard is used for MEL/CDL items when a maintenance procedure requires repetitive action at a defined frequency.
  9. Flightdeck Preparation Flow should be accomplished on the first
    flight of the day, after a crew change or prior to an oceanic flight. This flow
    should also be accomplished __ or __.
    after maintenance has been performed in the flightdeck or when the flightdeck has been left unattended and not inview of a pilot crewmember.
  10. Flight Attendants are responsible for reporting all cabin discrepancies not previously recorded to the flightdeck. The FA will complete a Cabin Discrepancy Worksheet located in the __. 
    Cabin Book
  11. According to the DOT Tarmac Delay policy, an opportunity to deplane ONLY exists if the passengers onboard a delayed aircraft are _ _.
    notified they have ability to deplane
  12. (True or False) When a request is made to reopen a cabin door prior to departure, all doors will be disarmed. 
  13. Referring to the SPAR matrix, are crews allowed to use Standard Thrust (FLEX) on a contaminated runway? 
  14. A weight restricted flight is designated when the planned weight of the aircraft is within __ lbs. of any structural or inflight weight limitation. The flight crew will send an ACARS message of the actual FOB as soon as possible after fueling.
  15. If center tank fuel is not full on the A321, dispatch with more than __ pounds of total fuel in both ACTs is prohibited, unless directed by an MEL.
  16. Where are item service evaluations, aircraft modifications and equipment deactivation not covered by the MEL/CDL located?
    • Special Item List which includes the following:
    •  items undergoing service evaluation
    •  aircraft modifications
    •  deactivation of certain equipment not covered by the MEL/CDL
  17. The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is required within the next __ hours of APU operation.
  18. A pilot must present any FAA-issued certificate, authorization, or license upon request to the FAA or any of the following:

    a. authorized representative of the NTSB

    b. federal, state, or local law enforcement officer

    c. authorized representative of the TSA

    d. a and b

    e. all of the above 
    e. all of the above 
  19. (True or False) For flights beyond 50 NM from the nearest shoreline, the flightdeck crew must notify the flight attendants during the Cabin Crew Leg Brief that the flight will require a life vest demonstration. 
  20. Approximately 10 minutes prior to departure and after Route Verification is completed, ____ before accomplishing the Before Start Flow. 
    Start the APU (if not already running)
  21. The Before Pushback Flow is used to prepare for pushback and starting the engines. The triggers for the Pushback Flow are __ and __.
    receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed and armed
  22. The Before Start Checklist states “PARK BRK….ON, Checked”. The Pilot Handbook requires the captain to reference the __ whenever the PARK BRK is set ON or OFF. 
    brake triple indicator
  23. Operate engines for at least __ minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust to allow engine temperature to stabilize. The warm-up can be reduced to a minimum of __ minutes (workload permitting) if an engine has been shutdown for __ hours or less. 
    • 5
    • 3
    • one and a half
  24. If an amber FAULT light appears in the ENG 1 (2) ANTI ICE pb, this would be an indication the position of the anti-icing valve __. 
    disagrees with ENG 1 (2) pb selection
  25. A variance between the RLS Fuel and the fuel onboard is allowed. If the fuel onboard is Greater than RLS FUEL plus FERRY fuel by more than __ pounds or __%, whichever is greater, then notify the dispatcher to correct the W&B.
    • 500
    • 1
  26. A
    supplemental procedure is a procedure used in lieu of a normal procedure in certain circumstances. Pilots may accomplish the supplemental procedure from memory, by reviewing the procedure prior to its accomplishment, or __. 
    by reading the procedure during its accomplishment
  27. (True or False) On the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone may be used for operations only if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set. 
  28. (True or False) A5 powered aircraft have a fuel de-pulse feature that is initiated during engine auto start. If de-pulse occurs during engine start, do not abort the start.
  29. Do not attempt a 180° turn on a surface less than __ feet wide (A319/320) or __ feet wide (A321). 
    • 100
    • 105
  30. . Routine ECAM messages may occur as a result of normal procedures or operations and are not considered non-normal by the manufacturer. Two routine ECAMs listed in the Pilot Handbook are __ and __. 
    • ELEC GEN 2OFF (During single engine taxi)
    • DOORS CABIN/CARGO (Upon gate arrival)
  31. For a mechanical discrepancy after dispatch before takeoff, if the discrepancy is associated with an ECAM Message, the crew must refer to the ECAM/MEL ________ to determine if “NO DISPATCH” or “NO TAKEOFF” appears in the DISPATCH CONDITION column. 
    Cross Reference Appendix
  32. Single engine taxi is the standard mode of taxi. To configure for single engine taxi,
    the ENG MODE Selector should be in __, the Y ELEC PUMP is selected to __ and GEN 2 is selected __. 
    • ON
    • OFF
  33. Before crossing an intersecting runway, scan the full length of the runway for potential conflicts and verbalize __. 
    “clear left, clear right”
  34. Crews should not takeoff if brake temperatures exceed __°C with brake fans on (or shortly after brake fans are used) or __ °C with brake fans off. If fans are not used for taxi, crews may depart with indicated brake temperatures less than __°C, as the reading will represent actual temperature. 
    • 150
    • 300
    • 300
  35. For acceptable RVSM altimeter tolerances, ground check PFD 1 and PFD 2 with a known airport altitude within +/- __ feet and altitude tolerance between PFD 1 and PFD 2 within __ feet.
    • 75
    • 20
  36. If performing single-engine taxi, the Y ELEC PUMP must be selected OFF prior to the second engine start to allow what action?
    To allow the PTU to perform necessary self-test.
  37. Total passenger count on the final weight and balance message is allowed to vary by __ from the customer service agent's count.
  38. All takeoffs performed by US Airways crews meet noise abatement criteria. For a “Normal Takeoff Profile”, climb thrust is selected and acceleration is initiated at __ feet AFL. For a “Noise Abatement Profile”, climb thrust is selected at __ feet AFL and acceleration is initiated at __ feet AFL.
    • 1000
    • 1500
    • 3000
  39. Due to N1 fan blade flutter, IAE engines should not maintain prolonged thrust settings between __ N1 while on the ground. Asymmetric thrust can occur if the pilot incorrectly stabilizes thrust settings above 1.05 EPR. 
    • 61%-74%
  40. The maximum 90° crosswind component for takeoff and landing is _ knots_. 
  41. A FLEX temperature was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent during the takeoff roll resulting in an ENG FLEX TEMP NOT SET message to appear on the ECAM. The crew should ______.
    Set TOGA thrust and continue the takeoff roll.
  42. The ailerons are normally controlled by __. If it fails, control is automatically transferred to __. 
    • ELAC 1
    • ELAC 2
  43. The main factors that result in tail strikes during takeoff are __, __, __, or some combination of the three. 
    • early rotation
    • over-rotation
    • excessive pitch
  44. The last waypoint that is common to both the SID and the associated EOSID is known as the _____. After this point, the courses for the SID and the EOSID begin to diverge.
    diversion waypoint
  45. During initial climb, with all engines operating, adjust the pitch attitude to follow the F/D commands. Engage the autopilot by __ feet AGL
    for all RNAV departures.
  46. Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below __ °C SAT. 
  47. What are the Maximum Rate of Climb speeds for an A319/320/321?
    A319/320: 260 KIAS/.76M

    A321: 280 KIAS/.76M
  48. During a RVSM Flight Altimeter check, when initially established in cruise flight, at or above __, crosscheck each PFD altimeter and the standby altimeter. Record the results for use in contingency situations. The two (2) PFD altimeters must agree within __ feet at all times
    within RVSM airspace. 
    • FL290
    • 200
  49. When above FL250, the pilot at the controls shall don an O2 mask when the other pilot at the controls leaves his __. All pilots shall don their O2 masks with cabin altitude above __ feet. 
    • seat
    • 10,000
  50. Pressing the EMERGENCY pressure selector on the Crew Oxygen Mask creates an overpressure which eliminates condensation and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask. Overpressure supply is started automatically when cabin altitude exceeds __ feet. 
  51. When making autoflight systems inputs (FMS or FCU), crews should __, __, __ and __ if necessary. 
    • Confirm
    • Activate
    • Monitor
    • Intervene
  52. Periodic system checks are required throughout the flight. One recommended method is to perform a HEFOE (Hydraulic, Electric, Fuel, Oxygen, Engine) check approximately __ at or abeam the closest flight plan waypoint. 
    every hour
  53. The Cargo Smoke DISCH pb is listed as a “Confirm” item under the Non-Normal methodology. __ extinguisher bottle supplies _one_ nozzle in the forward compartment and __ nozzles in the aft compartment. 
    • one
    • one
    • two
  54. Make an INFO-ONLY discrepancy entry in the FDML for intermittent/temporary malfunctions that have been corrected. If the malfunction has been previously written up in the FDML __ (excluding this occurrence) in the past __ days, do not add “INFO-ONLY” to the discrepancy section, and contact MOC. 
    • two or more times
    • 10 days
  55. There is no requirement to correct a fuel imbalance inflight unless an __ is displayed. 
    ECAM fuel advisory
  56. When accomplishing non-normal procedures, the PF calls for the “____” in case of an ECAM Exception or Non-Normal procedure that is not indicated by ECAM. The PF calls “____” in case of ECAM procedures that are not ECAM Exceptions. 
    QRH procedure

    • ECAM Action
  57. Depressurization routes are designed to give pilots lateral and vertical guidance in the event a rapid descent is required over areas of critical terrain. These routes are published on ______ charts located in the route manual for preflight planning as well as loaded into the FMS. 
    critical terrain orientation
  58. Upon entering a holding pattern, the total fuel on board will be calculated every __ minutes by the __.

    First Officer
  59. Do not pull circuit breakers to deactivate an item unless directed by the __ or Maintenance Control. 
  60. The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
    14,000 ft.
  61. If severe turbulence is encountered, maintain turbulence airspeed. Turbulence airspeed for the A319/320/321 is?
    • Below 20,000 feet
    • A319/320.......250 knots
    • A321...............270 knots

    • At or above 20,000 feet
    • A319/320........275 knots / .76M
    • A321...............300 knots / .76M
  62. (True or False) All turbojet operators must assess landing performance based on actual conditions existing at the time of arrival. This performance assessment is separate from the dispatcher's landing performance calculations at the time of dispatch. 
  63. When a flight reports leaving an altitude, the PF maintains a descent rate consistent with ATC requirements and fuel conservation procedures. Below 2500 feet on the radio altimeter, do not descend at a rate greater than __
  64. When selecting an altitude in the FCU that is below 10,000 feet, the ALT increment selector should be set to __. 
  65. The PM's Descending Through 18,000 Feet Flow is __, __ and __. 
    • ECAM - Checked
    • MCDU - Set
  66. The __ should be notified as soon as possible of a decision to divert to any airport other than the intended destination.
  67. The maximum holding airspeed 6000 ft. and below is ________
    200 KIAS
  68. The maximum holding airspeed above 6,000 ft. through 14,000 ft. is?
    230 KIAS and 230 KIAS where published.
  69. The maximum holding airspeed above 14,000 ft. is?
    265 KIAS
  70. The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) will generate an ADVISORY, CAUTION or WARNING alert depending on the __ and not the relative strength of the windshear event. 
  71. The PWS Advisory, Caution and Warning alerts are inhibited during takeoff from __ knots until __ feet AGL.
    • 100
    • 50
  72. __ is the standard flap setting for landing. 
    CONF 3
  73. On CAT III approaches, the ___annunciation indicates the autoland system is operating in a “Fail Passive” mode. “Fail Passive” will allow successful completion of an autoland, but visual verification of the runway environment at or prior to the DH is required. 
  74. The aircraft is certified for an engine-out CAT III Single approach (fail passive) and autoland provided engine-out procedures are completed prior to __ feet AFL.
  75. If “CAT 3 DUAL” is displayed in INOP SYS without any other failure being detected, change the AP in command. This may allow the CAT 3 DUAL function to be recovered. If this procedure fails, cycle the __ pbs to OFF and back to ON one at a time.
  76. The AUTO LAND lights flash when excessive deviation occurs in LOC or GLIDE, both autopilots disengage, both localizer transmitters or receivers fail, both G/S transmitters or receivers fail or the difference between RA indications is greater than 15 feet. The warning flashes in LAND mode below __. 
    200 ft. RA
  77. The minimum height for the use of the Autopilot during a Non-Precision Approach is __, __, or __. 
    • DA
    • DDA
    • MDA
  78. Maximum gear extension speed (VLO) is __, Maximum gear extended speed (VLE) is __, and Maximum gear retraction speed (VLO) is __. 
    • 250 KIAS
    • 280 KIAS/.67M
    • 220 KIAS
  79. In low visibility conditions, __ provides the best flightdeck angle to obtain visual cues during landing. 
  80. A go-around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if the FMA does not display a __ below 350 feet RA, the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates during the approach, or the FMA does not display __ at approximately 40 feet. 
    • LAND Green
    • FLARE
  81. In flight, the pilot monitoring (PM) will normally move the landing gear and flap controls upon command of the pilot flying (PF). Prior to moving the landing gear or flap handle, the PM will check the __ to ensure that it is in the normal operating range for the aircraft
  82. When flying a VOR/NDB (if ADF installed) approach, the underlying raw data must be monitored during the approach. Once established inbound on the approach, a missed approach must be executed if raw data indicated on the ND differs by more than __ from the charted inbound approach course (except for station passage). 
  83. The “Stable, Target, Sink ___” callout at 500 ft. (auto callout- if installed) is not required on a non-precision approach unless _____ call out has been made above 500 feet. 
  84. Either pilot may make a go around callout. If the go around call out is made, the PF must __. 
    execute a go-around
  85. At airports with a Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal, whenever observing a pulsing PAPI, prior to 500 feet AGL look for and visually acquire the traffic on the runway. If the PAPI is still pulsing by __ feet AGL, contact ATC to confirm landing clearance. 
  86. During a go-around, ensure NAV is engaged. Then, if the desired missed approach path cannot be flown in NAV or ATC assigns a heading, utilize HDG. Maintain current heading until reaching __ feet AFE. 
  87. Normally, during a go around above 1000 ft AFE, the best course of action is to initially move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and then return them to the CL detent when TOGA thrust is not required. This would be accomplished only after verifying that __ was annunciated on the FMA. 
  88. Sufficient clues must exist to continue the approach below DH or MDA/DDA. If visual clues are lost after DH or MDA/DDA due to shallow fog, snow flurries or heavy precipitation, the pilot shall immediately initiate a _____ and fly the _____. 
    • go-around
    • published missed approach procedure
  89. (True or False) On slippery runways, the predetermined deceleration may not be reached due to antiskid operation. In this case, the green DECEL light will not illuminate. This does not indicate the autobrake is not working. 
  90. Landing with CONF 3 rather than CONF FULL will increase the normal landing roll by approximately __ feet, depending upon landing weight.
  91. After landing, maintain up to maximum reverse thrust until the airspeed approaches __ knots. Then start reducing the reverse thrust so the reverse levers are moving down at a rate commensurate with the deceleration rate of the airplane. Reverse idle should be reached by __ knots. 
    • 80
    • 60
  92. Acceptable autoland performance cannot be assured at weights above the certified __. 
    Maximum Landing Weight
  93. During an Automatic Roll Out, with one engine inoperative, the use of the remaining thrust reverser is permitted provided __ and crosswind component is not more than __ knots. 
    not more than idle reverse thrust is used

  94. The PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “Pitch” if pitch attitude reaches __ degrees for the A319/320 or __ degrees for the A321. 

  95. (True or False) If, during a go around, both thrust levers are set to TOGA detent after touchdown, the autopilots will disengage.
  96. Crews will not transfer control of the aircraft below __ feet AFE unless required to prevent an unsafe condition. If the pilot monitoring is required to take control of the aircraft below __ feet, a go-around should be executed to avoid an unstable landing. 
    • 500
    • 500
  97. (True or False) A precautionary landing is defined as a situation when a routine landing is anticipated; however, as a precaution, emergency equipment will be standing by on the tarmac. The “TEST” briefing is NOT used. 
  98. The TEST acronym stands for?
    • T = how much Time is available
    • E = what type of Emergency
    • S = what is the brace Signal       
    • T = Take special instructions
  99. What is the trigger for the Captain's After Landing Flow? 
    After the aircraft has cleared the active runway
  100. Single engine taxi is the standard mode of taxi. Run engines at IDLE for approximately __ minutes to allow for engine thermal stabilization before shutting down engine #2. 
  101. If the brake temperatures do not appear likely to exceed _ _, do not utilize brake fans unless required to meet brake temperature limitations for a subsequent takeoff.
  102. As part of the First Officer's After Landing Flow, if the OAT is greater than __, place the FLAPS Lever in the 1 detent during taxi and at gate to avoid “AIR L(R) WING LEAK” caution. 
  103. (True or False) The Captain will reference the triple indicator whenever the PARK BRK is set ON or OFF. 
  104. If non-normal circumstances require operation of the APU, BAT 1 & 2 must remain ON to ensure __.
    Fire Protection
  105. The captain will taxi the aircraft to the gate. If waiting for guide man, the aircraft may be turned on to the lead-in line, but should not approach closer than approximately _____ from the parking position.
    one aircraft length
  106. Contact Ops if ground power and/or air is available and not connected. The APU may remain ON only if ____ or _____.
    ground power is inoperative

    ground air is inoperative and conditioned air is necessary for through passenger comfort
  107. Do not turn off the batteries to OFF until the __ is fully closed (about two (2) minutes after APU AVAIL light extinguishes). 
    APU flap
  108. The __ is a confirm item on the ground. 
     passenger door disarming lever
  109. The parking brakes should remain on at the gate when?
    • chocks are not in place, 
    • parked on a icy or snow-covered ramp
    • high or gusty winds are expected
    • requested by ramp personnel 
Card Set
Airbus SPV RC7 2014
Airbus SPV 2014