Pharm Ch 1-3 10 11 13 Review

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  1. Name the routes of administration and their bioavailability value
    • IV - 1
    • IM - 0.85
    • SQ - 0.75
    • PO - 0.45-0.56
    • IP - 0.45
    • Per rectum - 0.21
  2. This is the movement of drug molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across a semi-permeable membrane:
    Passive Diffusion
  3. Does passive diffusion require energy?
  4. This is the movement of drug molecules being surrounded by a carrier molecule within the cell membrane and carried into the cell usually from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration:
    Facilitated Diffusion
  5. Does facilitated diffusion require energy?
  6. This is the movement of drug molecules that are surrounded by carrier molecules within the cell membrane and carried into the cell against the concentration gradient:
    Active Transport
  7. Does active transport require energy?
  8. This is where the drug molecules particularly large proteins and intact antibiotics are surrounded and/or engulfed by the cell's membrane and taken within the cell
  9. Do pino/phagocytosis require energy?
  10. This is the movement of drug molecules from systemic circulation into tissues
  11. This is the degree to which an administered drugs is absorbed.
  12. This is the breaking up of a drug into smaller particles to be absorbed
  13. What form of drugs does not have a dissolution phase?
    liquid forms
  14. Describe ion trapping:
    A drug in lipophilic form penetrates the cell membrane and enters the cell.  The pH within the cell causes a dramatic shift to the hydrophilic form and the drug can no longer passively diffuse out of the cell.  However since there is a set ratio of hydrophilic to lipophilic molecules any lipophilic molecules will diffuse out of the cell causing other hydrophilic molecules to convert to lipophilic to maintain that set ratio.  Eventually this allows the drug to pass into systemic circulatiion.
  15. What are SR tablets and why aren't they used much in small animal medicine?
    Sustained Release tables are designed to dissolve slowly to allow small amounts of drug to be released into the system over a long period of time.  Since the digestive tract of canine and feline patients is much shorter than humans, the drug will not have enough time to dissolve and be absorbed
  16. Describe the first pass effect:
    Once a drug is absorbed into systemic circulation it goes to the liver via the hepatic portal system.  The liver assumes the drug is a foreign substance or xenobiotic and removes a substantial amount before allowing the remainder to reenter general circulation.
  17. This is an drug completely dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base that is only administered orally.
  18. An example of an elixir would be:
  19. This is a drug completely dissolved in a heavy sugar solution like 85% dextrose.
  20. An example of a syrup would be:
  21. These forms of medications are thicker than lotions and liniments that usually liquify at body temperature:
    Ointments and pastes
  22. What is the difference between and ointment and paste
    • Ointment is applied topically only
    • Paste is administered orally only
  23. This form of medication is thicker than liniments that is meant to be dabbed or brushed on skin.
  24. This is a drug dissolved in an alcohol solution that is meant to only be applied topically.
  25. This is a small glass container that is opened by snapping of the neck and is for single use injectable medication.
  26. This is the removal of a drug from the body.
  27. What are the two main type of excretion?
    • renal excretion
    • hepatic excretion
  28. 4 factors that slow excretion
    • R.I.D.S
    • Renal dysfunction
    • Increased Sympathetic Tone
    • Dehydration
    • Shock
  29. This describes how long it takes for the drug concentration in the blood to decrease by 50%.
    drug half life
  30. What is used to measure drug elimination?
    a drug's half-life
  31. This is the period from the last administration of drugs to when the animal can be legally slaughtered for human consumption or products like milk/eggs can be consumed.
    Withdrawal time
  32. This is when the concentration highs (peaks) and concentration lows (troughs) of a drug are roughly the same within the blood after 5 half-lives.
    Steady State
  33. How is the steady state calculated?
    5 x t1/2 = steady state
  34. An acid environment is better penetrated by which form of a drug?
  35. An alkaline environment is better penetrated by which form of a drug?
  36. This is the state where the ionized to non-ionized ratio of a drug is 1:1 and describes a drugs alkaline or acid nature.
  37. An acid drug is predominantly in which form in an acid environment?
  38. An alkaline drugs is predominantly in which form in an alkaline environment?
  39. A single use glass container with a rubber stopper that separates the solute from the diluent.
  40. This is a drug made from ground up plant and animal parts that have been treated, filtered, refined and prepared into some medical form usually in batches or lots.
  41. This refers to a type of drug that requires it to go through biotranformation phase 1 to become active.

    ex: prednisone (K9) > b/t 1 > prednisolone (Fel)
  42. Describe the MFO system:
    Mixed Function Oxidase system is the most common group of enzymes in biotransformation phase 1. Repeatedly used drugs cause an increase in the number of enzymes available.  This increases the rate at which these drugs are metabolized, thus causing induced metabolism
  43. Describe Biotransformation Phase I.
    After the drug exerts its effect and decomposes, it is returned back to the liver where it is either oxidized, reduced or hydrolized  by the MFO system to a generally less active metabolite
  44. Describe Biotransformation Phase II
    After phase one the metabolite is conjugated with another molecule such as glucaronic acid, sulfate or glycine.  This produces a more hydrophilic metabolite.  Excretion is then possible by the kidney or liver since the hydrophilic form is unable to be reabsorbed through the lumen
  45. This class of drugs has a HIGH potential for abuse and may lead to severe physiologic and psychological dependence.

    ex: opium, ketamine, morphine
  46. This class of drugs has SOME potential for abuse and may lead to low to moderate physiologic and high psychological dependence.

    ex: barbituates, Telazol
  47. This class of drugs has LOW potiential for abuse and has limited physiologic and psychological dependence.

    ex: butorphanol, valium
  48. This class of drugs has the LOWEST potential for abuse and is subject to state and local regulations.

    ex: Lomotil
  49. This is the initial dose to reach theraputic range.
    Loading dose
  50. This is the dose needed to hold the level of drug in t he middle of the theraputic range.
    Maintenance dose
  51. What temperature is considered Cold Storage?
    not to exceed 46 F
  52. What temperature is considered Cool Storage?
    between 46 and 59 F
  53. What temperature is considered Room Temperature?
    59 to 86 F
  54. What temperature is considered Warm Storage?
    between 86 and 104 F
  55. What is considered Excessive Heat
    greater than 104 F
  56. How does perfusion affect absorption?
    Well perfused tissues will absorb injected drugs quicker than poorly perfused tissues
  57. How does perfusion affect distribution?
    Well perfused tissues will show higher concentrations of drug than poorly perfused tissues
  58. Name 4 well perfused tissues
    • Brain
    • Kidney
    • Liver
    • Heart
  59. Name 4 poorly perfused tissues
    • Bone
    • Ligaments
    • Tendons
    • Fat
  60. Name 4 barriers to drug passage
    • Placenta
    • Globe of the eye
    • Prostate
    • Blood/Spinal cord
  61. This is an approximation of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body - a larger number = more tissues penetrated
    Volume of distribution (Vd)
  62. This is a type of suspension in which two compounds are mixed in a jelly-like substance.
  63. This is a type if suspension in which a drug mixed into an oil to be rubbed into the skin
  64. This is where a drug is used safely and successfully by veterinarians but not specifically approved by the FDA
    off (extra) label use
  65. Which act place the FDA in the role of watchdog over the way veterinary drugs are used?
    Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act
  66. Which act in 1994 gave Veterinarians the authority to use approved drugs in an off (extra) label manner?
    The Animal Medical Drug Use Clarification Act
  67. Requirements for a valid Rx:
    • Name, address, current phone number of veterinarian or clinic/hospital
    • Date written
    • Client's name, address
    • Species
    • Rx to mean "take thou of"
    • Drug name, concentration, number and type of units dispensed
    • Sig - to mean "write or label"
    • DEA # if it is a controlled substance
  68. This is the term given to a drug that can be produced by multiple companies once the patent coverage is no longer in effect and is only required to be 90% pure by the FDA to be licensed.
    Generic equivalent
  69. FDA
    Food and Drug Administration
  70. DEA
    Drug Enforcement Administration
  71. MSDS
    Material Safety Data Sheet
  72. What does the MSDS contain?
    Guidelines for protective precautions, clean up procedures, and first aid for accidental exposure to whichever substance the sheet is about.
  73. What does a TM or an encircled R stand for?
    Trademark or registered name = a name only that manufacturer may legally use, has the patent for by the federal government which allows them to recoup money spent on its development
  74. This is a drug suspended in an emulsion of egg lecithin and soybean oil
    • p= Propoflo
    • np = propofol
  75. This is a powdered drug compressed into a disk
  76. This is a powdered drug surrounded by a gelatin casing
  77. This is a powdered drug mixed with lactose or dextrose
    Chewable Molded Tablet
  78. This is a powdered drug mixed with and incorporated into a hard candy not generally used in Veterinary medicine
  79. This is a type of suspension where two immiscible liquids when mixed together, one is suspended in small globules in the other
  80. This is a general term applied to a solute that completely dissolves in a diluent and will not settle out
  81. This is a general term applied to a solute that does not dissolve completely in a diluent when mixed and will settle out
  82. This is a substance that had the potential for physical, psychological addiction and/or abuse
    controlled substance
  83. This means to write or label
  84. syrup abbreviation
  85. tablet abbreviation
  86. drop abbreviation
  87. capsule abbreviation
  88. extract abbreviation
  89. abbreviation for "every night at bedtime"
  90. by abbreviation
  91. ointment abbreviation
  92. cubic centimeter
  93. dispense abbreviation
  94. gram abbreviation
  95. grain abbreviation
  96. at once abbreviation
  97. suppository abbreviation
  98. suspension abbreviation
  99. OSHA
    Occupational Safety and Health Administration
  100. What is OSHA for?
    Provides a handbook that outlines guidelines for safe handling, storage, use, clean up and disposal of chemicals/drugs
  101. solution abbreviation
  102. Normal Saline abbreviation
  103. after meals abbreviation
  104. as needed abbreviation
  105. Four times a day abbreviation
  106. intramuscular abbreviation
  107. every other day abbreviation
  108. PDR
    Physician's Desk Reference
  109. VPB
    Veterinary Pharmaceuticals and Biologics
  110. BNDD
    Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs

    Old name for the DEA
  111. Components to therapeutic drug use
    • 1. route of administration
    • 2. dose
    • 3. dose interval
  112. Routes of Administration
    • intravenous - IV
    • intramuscular - IM
    • subcutaneous - SQ
    • oral - PO
    • intraperitoneal - IP
    • rectal

  113. This is the amount of time between administration of separate doses
    dose interval
  114. This is the dose interval and the dosage
    dose regimen
  115. This is the product of the dose and frequency of administration
    total daily dose
  116. This refers to how a drug is metabolized depending on the nature of the drug and the body's responses
  117. The 4 classic drug movement steps
    • 1. absorption
    • 2. distribution
    • 3. metabolism
    • 4. excretion
  118. This is the movement from the site of administration to systemic blood circulation
  119. intravascular(venous) abbreviation
  120. Over-The-Counter abbreviation
  121. What constitutes an OTC drug?
    Based on toxicity and is determined by how adequately instructions made for the lay person to use with clarity and consistency
  122. ounce abbreviation
  123. How many mL in 1 oz?
  124. milliliter abbreviation
  125. How many mL in 1 L
  126. How many mL in 1 T
    15 mL
  127. How many mL in 1 tsp?
  128. every abbreviation
  129. elixir abbreviation
  130. hour abbreviation
  131. pound abbreviation
  132. milligram abbreviation
  133. How many milligrams in 1 g
    1000 mg
  134. How many grams in 1 oz
    28.3 g
  135. How many mg in 1 grain
    60 mg
  136. before meals abbreviation
  137. Packet Insert Terms
    • Description of compostion
    • Indications
    • Precautions
    • Contraindications
    • Warnings
    • Adverse Reactions
    • Side Effects
  138. This is the chemical definition on a package insert
    Description of composition
  139. This is a list for which a drug is approved on a package insert
  140. These are reasons to use a drug on a package insert
  141. These are reasons NOT to use the drug on a package insert
  142. These are potentially fatal reactions on a package insert
  143. These are undesirable reactions that could occur to make the animal sick on a package insert
    Adverse reactions
  144. These are any normal effect of a drug other than intended for therapeutic effect on a package insert
    Side effects
  145. tincture abbreviation
  146. two times a day abbreviation
  147. as desired abbreviation
    ad lib
  148. once a day abbreviation
  149. three times a day abbreviation
  150. Veterinary Technician definition
    A student that has graduated from an AVMA accredited program
  151. What 3 things can a vet tech not do
    • Diagnose
    • Prescribe treatment/medications
    • Perform surgery
  152. right eye abbreviations
  153. left eye abbreviation
  154. both eyes abbreviation
  155. by mouth abbreviation
  156. According to Bill what does PO mean
    via a body opening
  157. liter abbreviation
  158. subcutaneous abbreviation
  159. Intraperitoneal abbreviation
  160. This is the movement of a drug from a tissue back to the blood and then to a second tissue
  161. This is the movement of a drug from the intestinal tract, to the liver, to the blood and tissue, back to the liver, to the intestinal tract, then reabsorbed back from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver
    enterohepatic circulation
  162. This refers to a drug that combines with a receptor and cause a cell to produce a physiological change
  163. How do you determine a drugs absorption degree according to availability?
    Multiply the dose by the bioavailability factor
  164. This is the lowest concentration of an antibiotic drug within theraputic range that stops bacterial growth
    Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
  165. This means decrease in number of platelets
  166. This is a general term for disease causing agents
  167. This refers to the range of bacteria that can be killed by a particular antimicrobial
    Spectrum of activity
  168. This means to "kill" bacteria
  169. This refers to traces of leftover drug in the tissues long after the antimicrobial drug has been stopped
  170. This is the chemical structure found in Penicilllins and Cephalosporins that some bacteria produce enzymes that target it for destruction
    Beta lactam ring
  171. This means having an allergic reaction to a drug
  172. This is the process by which one compound binds to another compound, causing it to precipitate our of solution and occurs in tetracyclines and calcium
  173. This  means toxic to the kidney and occurs with aminoglycosides
  174. This is the presence of crystals, typically precipitated drug molecules, in the urine
  175. This means "skin plant" and refers to fungal agents such as "ringworm"
  176. This is a term referring to the depression or stopping of bone marrow production of blood cells and occurs with chloramphenicol
  177. This is the enzyme that is the target of quinolones and prevents the nuclear material of bacteria from being condensed thus preventing division
    DNA Gyrase
  178. Most often associated with tetracyclines, this drug-induced condition results in a glucosuria without hyperglycemia
    Faconi's Syndrome
  179. This means to inhibit bacterial growth
  180. This means a decreased number of white blood cells
  181. This term indicates bacteria can be inhibited or killed by a particular drug
  182. This occurs when an oral antibiotic kills off the beneficial bacteria in the GI tract and allows pathogenic bacterial proliferation
  183. This means toxic to the ear and occurs with aminoglycosides
  184. This is a condition often associated with sulfonamides and is commonly called dry eye due to decreased function of the tear glands
    Keratoconjuctivitis sicca (KCS)
  185. This is the process by which bacteria are isolated and their susceptibility to different antimicrobial drugs is determined
    Culture and sensitivity
  186. This is a class of microbes that grow under conditions with little or no oxygen
  187. This means produces pus
  188. This means to cause birth defects and is associated with griseofulvin use in cats
  189. Proprietary name for Griseofulvin
  190. This term translates to "against life"
  191. This refers to bacterial resistance to several related antimicrobial drugs
  192. This is the enzyme produced by some bacteria that can disable penicillins and cephalosporins
    Beta lactamase
  193. This means that a bacteria cannot be killed by a particular drug
  194. This class of microbes require oxygen to grow
  195. Give the 5 Antimicrobial mechanisms of action and an example(s) of each
    1) Interferes with formation of bacterial cell wall - Penicillins/Cephalosporins

    2) Damages bacterial cell membrane (none given)

    • 3) Interferes with protein synthesis via ribosome interruption -
    • Aminoglycosides/Macrolides/Lincosamides/tetracyclines

    4) Interfere with critical enzymes for normal metabolism - Sulfonamides

    5) Damage/alteration of Nucleic acids - Quinolones
  196. What can render an aminoglycoside ineffective?
    The presence of pus (pyogenic infection)
  197. How are aminoglycosides taken up into tissues and what chemical does this process depend on?
    Active transport / Oxygen
  198. Because they readily uptake in the ear and kidney tissues, aminoglycosides are said to be what?
    Ototoxic and nephrotoxic
  199. Aminoglycoside mechanism of action can be enhanced by which class(es) of drugs?
    Penicillins and cephalosporins
  200. How is early aminoglycoside toxicosis detected?
    The presence of casts and increased protein in the urine
  201. At most physiologic pH levels, Aminoglycosides are typically lipophilic or hydrophilic?
  202. True or False: With aminoglycosides, the total daily dose should be t.i.d. instead of s.i.d.
    False, because extended dosage intervals are necessary to allow plasma concentrations more time to decrease enough to prevent toxicity
  203. These tetracyclines are able to penetrate through the blood-brain barrier better than others of the same class and have a slightly broader spectrum of activity
    Doxycycline and Minocycline
  204. These two drugs, when expired decompose to a nephrotoxic compound and are the cause of Fanconi's syndrome
    • Tetracycline
    • Oxytetracycline
  205. Class of antimicrobials most associated with hypersensitivity reactions
  206. Name the first quinolone approved in the US for cats and dogs
    Enrofloxacin (Baytril)
  207. This is the antifungal of choice for deep mycoses and will cause damage to the kidneys if not given with Dextrose 5% in water
    Amphotericin B (Fungizone)
  208. This vehicle for penicillin extends theraputic concentrations for up to 2 days
  209. This vehicle for penicillin extends theraputic actions over 5 days
  210. What compound is used to potentiate amoxicillin?
    Clavulanic acid
  211. These are chemical agents that kill or prevent growth of pathogens on living tissues
  212. These are antiseptics or disinfectants that reduce the number of microorganisms to a "safe" level
  213. These are chemical agents that kill or prevent growth on inanimate objects
  214. This means "kills microbial spores"
  215. This is an infection acquired during a period of hospitalization
  216. This means "kills protozoa"
  217. This is a glycocalyx coating over surgical implants that prevents antiseptics from reaching bacteria
  218. This mean "kills viruses"
  219. Antiseptics or disinfectants that destroy all forms of microorganisms including spores
  220. This means capable of killing cells
  221. This is a type of virus that is difficult to kill with most antiseptics
  222. This means "kills fungi"
  223. This is an antiseptic combined with soap
  224. This is an antiseptic (iodine) dissolved in an alcohol solution
  225. This means "kills bacteria"
  226. This biguanide compound is one the most commonly used antiseptic/disinfectant in veterinary medicine that precipitates with hard water, should be diluted, and inhibits fibroblasts
    Chlorhexidine (Nolvasan)
  227. This type of disinfectant is found in most handsoaps, mouthwashes and Lysol and have been reported to be neurotoxic and teratogenic in humans
  228. This term means "generates birth defects"
  229. This is commonly found in surgical scrubs, can be inactivated by organic material, and is often combined with polyvinyl pyrrolidine to release it over time
  230. This chemical is from the chlorine class and is effective against non-enveloped viruses like parvovirus
    Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) 30:1
  231. T/F: Color-fast bleaches have chlorine as their active ingredient
  232. Which should be used to disinfect a surgery table: microbiostatic or microbiocidal?
  233. Which form of bacteria is more susceptible to disinfectants and antiseptics: the vegetative or spore form?
    vegetative (active form)

    Note: the spore for is the dormant form and therefore hard to kill
  234. This is the group of adrenocorticosteroids associated with the antiinflammatory response that come from the zona fasciculata
  235. These cyclooxygenase produced eicosanoids cause platelets to adhere to each other and thus contribute to the clotting mechanism
  236. This means "loss of hair" and is a clinical sign of Cushing's disease.
  237. This is the type of immunity provided by antibodies
    humoral immunity
  238. This is a condition of the kidney caused by a combination of NSAID use plus arterial hypotension and can lead to kidney failure
    renal papillary necrosis
  239. These eicosanoids are produced by lipooxygenase
  240. This is a type of disease caused by the body's own defense mechanisms turning against its own tissues
    autoimmune reaction
  241. This is the term for the increase in neutrophils and is a part of the "stress triad"
  242. This is the term meaning tissue destruction or break down; seen with corticosteroid use
  243. This refers to the outer part of the adrenal gland
  244. Name the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex (outer to inner) and the group of steroids that comes from each
    • Zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
    • Zona fasciculata: glucocorticoids (cortisone)
    • Zona reticularis: sex hormones (5%) and some glucocorticoids
  245. Name the enzyme that produces thromboxanes and prostaglandins
  246. Give 2 names which thromboxanes, prostaglandins and leukotrienes are collectively called.
    Eicosanoids or Autocoids
  247. This means low numbers of eosinophils and is a part of the "stress triad"
  248. This is the term for the production of glycogen in the liver
  249. This is the hormone produced in the hypothalamus that stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release ACTH
    Corticotropin releasing factor
  250. This means decrease monocytes
  251. This means "decreased size": seen with muscles and skin in animals with exogenous corticosteroids
  252. This means a condition or disease "cause by the veterinarian"
  253. This is the enzyme that produces leukotrienes
  254. This group of adrenocorticosteroids affects mainly the electrolytes and water balance in the body
  255. This is the creation of glucose from animo acids produced from protein catabolism
  256. The means a "decrease of lymphocytes in circulation" and is part of the stress triad
  257. This is the chemical structure of a group that includes ibuprofen, naproxen and ketoprofen
    Propionic acid
  258. This is the series of enzymes that result in the production of eicosanoids(autocoids) after an injury
    Arachadonic acid pathway (vane model)
  259. This hormone release by the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of glucocorticoids in the zonal fasciculata
    Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  260. This is the dual-pathway NSAID because it blocks both COX and LOX
    Tepoxalin (Zubrin)
  261. This chondroprotective agent is a component of synovial fluid that acts as a  lubricant, increases viscosity of the fluid
    Hyaluronic acid
  262. This is an intermediate acting corticosteroid that is not a "pred"
    Triamcinolone acetate
  263. PSGAGs
    Polysulfated glycoaminoglycans
  264. These effects are associated with corticosteroids
    • Maintain capillary integrity
    • Decreased fibroblast activity
    • Decreased T-lymphocyte activity
    • Decreased scar tissue formation
    • Increased neutrophils
    • Muscle wasting and atrophy
  265. These two nutriceutical chondroprotective agents are precursors for PSGAGs
    glucosamine and chondriton sulfate
Card Set
Pharm Ch 1-3 10 11 13 Review
Bill book ch 1-3
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