micro health

  1. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism 



    D. Mushroom
  2. which process involves the deliberate alteration of an organism's 



    A. Recombinant DNA technology
  3. abiogenesis refers to the 



    B. Spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter
  4. when a hypothesis has been throughly supported by long-term study and data, it s considered



    B. theory
  5. Which is the correct order of the taxonomic categories, going from most specific to most general




    D.  species,genus,family,order,class,phylum,kingdom,domain.
  6. Which of the following are prokaryotic




    D. both a and b
  7. How would you classify a virus



    C. neither a or b
  8. DNA is a hereditary molecule that is composed of 




    C.  deoxyribose,phosphate,and nitrogen bases.
  9. a mixed culture is 




    D.  one that contains two or more known species.
  10. resolution is ______ with a longer wavelenght of light 




    B. worsened
  11. a real image is produced by the 




    A. object
  12. a microscope that has a tatol magnification of 1,500X when using the oil immersion objective has an ocular of what power?




    C. 15X
  13. the specimen for an electron microscope is always 




    A. killed
  14. motility is best observed with a 




    C. hanging drop preparation
  15. bacteria tend to stain more readily with cationic(positively change) dyes because bacteria.




    C. contain large amounts of acidic substance
  16. a fastidious organism must be grown on what type of medium




    D. enriched medium
  17. Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells 




    C. flagellum
  18. a bacterial arrangement in packets of eight cells is described as a 




    B. sarcina
  19. Pili are tubular shafts in _____ bacteria that serve as a means of ______




    B. gram-negative, genetic exchange
  20. Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?




    D. peptidoglycan
  21. bacterial endospores usually function in 




    A. survival
  22. a bacterial species is determined by 




    D. two of the above 

    • genetic similarities 
    • phenotypic similarities
  23. Which stain is most frequently used to distinguish differences between the cell walls of medically important bacteria?




    D. gram stain
  24. Archaea are most closely related to 




    A. eukaryotes
  25. Both flagella and cilia are found primarily in 




    B. protozoa
  26. features of the membrane envelope include





    D. both b and c
  27. Yeast are _______ fungi, and molds are _____ fungi 




    C. unicellular, filamentous
  28. almost all protozoa have a 




    C. trophozoite stage
  29. all mature sporozoa are 




    D. both a and b
  30. parasitic helminths reproduce with 





    E. eggs and sperm
  31. mitochondria likely originated from 




    C. bacteria
  32. most helminth infections 




    A. Are localized to one site in the body
  33. a virus is a tiny infectious 




    A. particle
  34. Viruses are known to infect




    C. all organisms
  35. the nucleic acid of a virus is 




    D. either DNA or RNA
  36. the general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are




    A.  adsorption, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release
  37. a prophage is an early stage in the development of a/an 




    D. bacterial virus
  38. in general, RNA viruses multiply in the cell ____, and DNA viruses multiply in the cell 




    C. cytoplasm, nucleus
  39. viruses cannot be cultivated in 




    C. live mammals
  40. clear patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are called 




    C. plaques
  41. an organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from CO2 using energy from the sun is a 




    B. photoautotroph
  42. chemoautotrophs can survive on _____ alone.




    C. minerals and CO2
  43. which of the following statement is true for all organisms




    C. they require inorganic nutrients
  44. a pathogen would most accurately be described as a 




    A. parasite
  45. which of the following is true of passive transport




    D. it requires a gradient
  46. a cell exposed to hypertonic environment will _____ by osmosis




    D. lose water
  47. psychrophiles would be expected to grow.




    D. at refrigeration temperatures
  48. in a viable plate count, each _____ represents a ______from the sample population 




    D. colony, cell
  49. catabolism is a form of metabolism in which ______molecules are converted into ________ molecules 



    C. large, small
  50. an enzyme 




    C. is heat and pH labile
  51. many coenzymes are formed from 




    A. vitamins
  52. energy is carried from catabolic to anabolic reaction in the form of

    a. ADP
    b. high-energy ATP bonds
    b. high-energy ATP bonds
  53. a product or products of clycolysis is/are 




    D. both a and b
  54. fermentation of a glucose molecule had the potential to produce a net number of ______ ATP 




    D. 2
  55. complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic respiration can yield a maximum net output of ____ ATP




    D. 38
  56. ATP synthase complexes can generate _____ ATP's for each NADH that enters electron transport




    B. 3
  57. what is the smallest unit of heredity

    a. chromosome 
    b. gene
    c. codon 
    d. nucleotide
    b gene
  58. the nitrogen bases in DNA are bounded to the 




    C. deoxyribose
  59. DNA replication is semiconservative because the _____ strand will become half of the ______ molecule 




    D. template, finished
  60. In DNA, adenine is the complementary base for _____ and cytosine is the complement for ____




    C. thymine, guanine
  61. as a general rule, the template strand on DNA will always begin with 




    B. TAC
  62. the LAC operon is usually in the ____ position and is activated by a/an _______ molecules 




    A. off, inducer
  63. which of the following is not a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer




    C. spontaneous mutation
  64. when genes are turned on differently under different environmental conditions, this represents a change in 




    D. phenotype
  65. microbial control method that kill ____ are able to sterilize




    B. endospores
  66. sanitization is a process by which 




    D. the microbial load on object is reduced
  67. an example of an agent that lowers the surface tension of cells is




    D. alcohol
  68. high temperatures _____ and low temperatures _____




    A. kills cells,cell growth
  69. microbe(s) that is/are the target(s) of pasteurizations include




    D. both b and c
  70. the primary mode of action of nonionzing radiation is to 




    A. make pyrimidine dimers
  71. the most versatile method of sterilizing heat-sensitive liquids is 




    D. filtration
  72. detergents are 




    C. low-level germicides
  73. a compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an 




    D. antibiotic
  74. which statement to not an aim in the use of drugs in antimicrobial chemotherapy? the drug should 




    B. be broken down and excreted rapidly
  75. drugs that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are 




    B. beta-lactams
  76. microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through 




    C. all of these
  77. phage therapy is a technique that uses




    C. phages to target pathogenic bacteria in the body
  78. most antihelminthic drugs function by 




    B. inhibiting worm metabolism
  79. the MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbes 




    A. smallest concentration
  80. an antimicrobial drug with a _____ therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a _____ therapeutic index 

    a. low, high
    b. high, low
    b. high, low
  81. the best descriptive term for the resident biota is 




    C. commensals
  82. resident biota is absent from the 




    D. heart
  83. virulence factors include




    C. all of these
  84. the ____ is the time that lapses between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms 




    C. period of incubation
  85. a short period early in a disease that may manifest with general malaise and achiness is the 

    a. period of incubation 
    b. prodrome 
    c. sequela 
    d. period of invasion
  86. b. prodrome
  87. a/an ______ is a passive animal transport of pathogen 




    D. mechanical vector
  88. a positive antibody test for HIV would be a _____ of infection 




    B. sign
  89. an outbreak caused by a batch of bad potato salad at a picnic is a _______ outbreak 




    B. point-source
  90. an example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is 




    A. lysozyme
  91. which of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes




    A. neutrophils
  92. what is included in GALT




    D. peyer's patches
  93. monocytes are _____ leukocytes that develop into ___




    A. agranular, macrophages
  94. an example of an exogenous pyrogen is 




    B. endotoxin
  95. which of the following is an antimicrobial protein that also has a role in the third line of defense in addition to its role in the second line of defense?




    D. antibody
  96. which of the following substances is/are not produced by phagocytes to destroy engulfed microorgainsms 




    C. bradykinin
  97. which of the following is the end product of the complement system 




    D. membrane attack complex
  98. the primary b-cell receptor is 




    A. IgD
  99. in human B cells mature in the _____ and T cells mature in the _____




    D. bone marrow, thymus
  100. the cross-linking of antigens by antibodies is known as 




    D. agglutination
  101. t_____ cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells 




    D. helper
  102. TC cells are important in controlling 




    D. virus infection
  103. which of the following can serve as antigen-presenting cells 





    E. b, c, and d
  104. a vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called 




    D. a subunit
  105. conjugates vaccines combine antigens and 




    D. foreign protein
  106. the isolation of two colonies of E. coli on a plate streaked from a urine sample most likely indicates 



    C. normal biota
  107. which of the following statements is incorrect 




    B. nonsterile patient samples can always be stored at room temperature
  108. because they are sufficiently unique in their appearances, viruses can sometimes be identified at a family or genus level by which phenotypic method




    C. electron microscopy
  109. which of the following methods can identify different stains of a microbe




    A. serotyping
  110. in agglutination reactions, the antigen is a _____,  in precipitation reaction it is a ____




    B. whole cell, soluble molecule
  111. which type of method are based on a microbe's utilization of nutrients ?



    C. biochemical
  112. which of the following is an in vivo immunologic method 




    C. tuberculin test
  113. which of the following is the correct pairing of an immunologic test and the subject to be identified 




    B. western blot/ an unknown microbial antigen or antibody
  114. an effective treatment for a cutaneous mycosis like tinea pedis would be




    B. miconazole
  115. what is the antimicrobial enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that can specifically break down peptidoglycan 




    D. lysozyme
  116. which of the following is probably the most important defense factor for skin 




    B. antimicrobial peptides
  117. name the organism(s) most commonly associated with cellulitis





    E. both a and c
  118. herpesviruses can cause all of the following diseases, except 




    D. roseola
  119. which disease is incorrectly matched with the causative agent 




    C. warts/ staphylococcus sureus
  120. dermatophytes are fungi that infect the epidermal tissue by invading and attacking




    D. keratin
  121. poor contact lens hygiene is likely to get you a case of 

    a. herpetic keratitis 
    b. wolbachia infection 
    c. acanthamoeba keratitis 
    d. ophthalmic gonorrhea
  122. c. acanthamoeba keratitis
  123. which of the following organisms does not cause meningitis 




    D. clostridium tetani
  124. the first choice antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is the broad-spectrum 




    A. cephalosporin
  125. meningococcal meningitis is caused by 




    A. neisseria meninhitidis
  126. which of the following neurological diseases is not caused by a prion




    C. St. Louis encephalitis
  127. cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by 




    C. bird droppings
  128. CJD is caused by a/an 




    A. prion
  129. what food should you avoid feeding children under 1 year old because of potential botulism 




    B. honey
  130. which of the following is not caused by an arbovirus 




    C. mad cow disease
  131. when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream, this is referred to as 




    B. septicemia
  132. the plague bacterium, Yersinia pestis is transmitted mainly by




    D. fleas
  133. rabbit fever is caused by 




    D. francisella tularensis
  134. cat-scratch disease is effectively treated with 




    A. rifampin
  135. normal biota found in the oral cavity are most likely to cause 




    B. subacute endocarditis
  136. a distinctibve bull's-eye rash results from a tick bite transmitting 




    A. Lyme disease
  137. wool-sorter's disease is caused by 




    B. bacillus anthracis
  138. which of the following is not a hemorrhagic fever 




    C. tublaremia
  139. the two most common groups of virus associated with the common cold is 





    D. both a and b
  140. which is not a characteristic of streptococcus pyogenes




    B. alpha-hemolytic
  141. which of the following techniques are used to diagnose tuberculosis 




    D. all of the above
  142. the DTaP vaccine provides protection against the following disease, except




    D. pneumonia
  143. which of the following infections often has a polymicrobial cause




    D. all of the above
  144. the vast majority of pneumonias caused by this occur in ADIS patients 




    C. pneumocystis jiroveci
  145. the beta-hemolysis of blood agar observed with streptococcus pyogenes is due to the presence of




    B. streptolysin
  146. an estimated ____ of the world population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis 




    B. one third
  147. food moves down the GI tract through the action of 




    D. peristalsis
  148. gastric ulcers are caused by 




    C. helicobacter pylori
  149. which of these microorganisms id considered the most common cause of diarrhea in the United States




    D. campylobacter
  150. which of these microorganisms is associated with Guillian-Barré syndrome 




    D. Campylobacter
  151. this hepatitis virus is an enveloped DNA virus 




    B. Hepatitis B Virus
  152. cystitis is an infection of the 




    B. bladder
  153. leptospirosis is transmitted to humans by 




    C. contaminated soil or water
  154. Syphilis is caused by 




    D. treponema pallidum
  155. bacterial vaginosis is commonly associated with the following organism 





    B. gardnerella
  156. this dimporphic fungus is a common cause of vaginitis 




    A. candida albicans
  157. genital herpes transmission can be reduced or prevented by all of the following, except 




    B. the contraceptive pill
  158. this protozoan can be treated with the drug metronidazole (flagyl)




    D. trichomonas vaginalis
  159. which group had the highest rate of HPV infection




    D. female collage students
Author
Rmay27
ID
251002
Card Set
micro health
Description
End of chapter question
Updated