1. In general, which of the following treatments used for childhood brain tumors is associated with the poorest long-term neuro-cognitive outcomes?
B) whole brain radiation
Whole brain radiation has been shown to have a significant adverse effect on overall IQ, processing speed and attention, due to white matter changes. These long-term cognitive effects are more pronounced in girls and are related to the radiation dose, total area of the brain radiated, and age at treatment.
2. Which of the following is false?
a) Anterograde amnesia is associated with hippocampal damage
b) Retrograde amnesia is associated with mammillary body or thalamic nuclei
lesions
c) Severe retrograde amnesia is almost always accompanied by anterograde amnesia
d) The hippocampus is required for retrieval of remote memories
d) The hippocampus is required for retrieval of remote memories.
The hippocampus is involved
in the formation of memories, not the retrieval.
3. Which of the following is not characteristic of Downs Syndrome?
skills in Downs Syndrome
A) Language skills are acquired at a faster rate relative to other motor or cognitive
skills in Downs Syndrome.
Actually language skills are acquired at a slower rate)
4. You are a neuropsychologist who has been asked to assess Mr. Jones decision-making
capacity. What are your ethical obligations in this situation?
a) You must obtain informed consent from Mr. Jones before proceeding with the
assessment.
b) You must provide Mr. Jones with an explanation of the assessment, consider his
preferences and best interest, and obtain his assent.
c) You do not require informed consent from Mr. Jones if he willingly complies
with the assessment procedures, because consent is implied.
d) You should only conduct the assessment if Mr. Jones demonstrates an
understanding of the purpose of the assessment, foreseeable risks, discomforts
and benefits, and the limits of confidentiality.
b) You must provide Mr. Jones with an explanation of the assessment, consider his
preferences and best interest, and obtain his assent.
5. A correlation coefficient of .80 means that the proportion of variance in Y that can be accounted for by knowing X is:
D) 64%
6. The vocal intonation that helps us understand the intended meaning of what people say is termed___ and is a __ _hemisphere specialization.
C) Prosody, right
7. As you lower the reliability of a test, the Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) ____.
C) increases
8. Does the test sample the domain that it is intended to measure? refers to which type of validity?
D) Content validity
Content validity is a non-statistical type of validity that involves "the systematic examination of the test content to determine whether it covers a representative sample of the behavior domain to be measured" (Anastasi & Urbina, 1997 p. 114). For example, does an IQ questionnaire have items covering all areas of intelligence discussed in the scientific literature?
Construct validity refers to the extent to which operationalizations of a construct (i.e., practical tests developed from a theory) do actually measure what the theory says they do. For example, to what extent is an IQ questionnaire actually measuring "intelligence"?
9. The hit rate of a test is best when ________
B) the base rate is moderate
Hit rate: The proportion of people a test or other measurement procedure accurately identifies as possessing or exhibiting a particular trait, behavior, characteristic, or attribute; contrast with miss rate,false positive, and false negative
10. Folate supplementation during pregnancy is recommended to prevent:
C) Neural Tube Defects
11. Which statement is true about the diagnosis of ADHD?
a) Stronger performance on digits backwards than digits forwards supports the
diagnosis
b) A continuous performance test is the most sensitive means of detecting ADHD
c) ADHD is a clinically-based diagnosis
d) Impairment on Trails B but not A is a sign that is specific to ADHD
c) ADHD is a clinically-based diagnosis
12. Acalculia of the Spatial Type is often associated with right hemisphere dysfunction
and may include all of the following features except:
13. The Geschwind-Galaburda Theory:
a) is based on the asymmetry of the planum temporale, which is particularly
prominent in males
b) is based on the asymmetry of the planum temporale, with the left hemisphere
being smaller than the right for most right-handed people
c) proposes that testosterone is implicated in greater development of the right
hemisphere
d) would explain males strengths in spatial tasks, but does not account for the
increased rate of autoimmune disorders in males
c) proposes that testosterone is implicated in greater development of the right
hemisphere
Based on observation of the asymmetry of the planum temporale with the left hemisphere being larger than the right in most right handed people. In males, however, there is less asymmetry – which is proposed to be an effect of testosterone in delaying the development of the left hemisphere, although greater development of the right. This theory provides rationale for the greater spatial skills in males, as well as the increased rate of autoimmune disorders in males. Kolb and Whishaw, Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology – Fifth Edition, 2003, page 663).
14. A patient who can copy a cross, cube, and upside down tree but can not identify what these drawings are of has?
C) Associative agnosia
Apperceptive agnosia involves a failure in perceptual processing of the stimuli, and therefore can not copy stimuli. Associative agnosia involves a failure in object identification despite preserved ability to copy and even match stimuli. It often co-occurs with prosopagnosia. Optic aphasia is impaired naming of visual objects with the patient still able to identify the object by other means and able to explain characteristics.
15. A test was used as a screening measure for ADHD and 90% of the children with ADHD scored in the abnormal range. This is the test's ___________. 80% of the
children without ADHD obtained scores in the normal range. This is the tests
______.
A) sensitivity, specificity
the positive predictive value, or precision rate is the proportion of positive test results that are true positives
16. Abnormalities in what areas of the brain have been proposed to correlate with impairment in autism?
D) Cerebellum, brain stem, and temporal lobes is the answer, but (b) may be more accurate. The book states that the brain size is often larger than average in younger subjects, -- it is slightly smaller or normal at birth then grows to larger; the corpus callosum is typically undersized. There is involvement in the cerebellum, limbic system, basal ganglia, thalamus and white matter, but this varies
17. A 52 y.o. hypertensive, diabetic man awakens unable to speak coherently and has right arm and face weakness but the leg is not affected. Exam shows dysarthria,
Broca aphasia, right hemiparesis (face and arm) and hemianesthesia. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Left middle cerebral artery (MCA) occlusion
The distribution of weakness (face and arm,
sparing the leg) and Broca aphasia suggests ischemia in MCA distribution. With
carotid occlusion, the territory of MCA and ACA would be affected such that the
face, arm and leg would be equally affected. Putaminal (subcortical) hemorrhage
would not likely cause aphasia.
18. The use of deception in research
B) Can be done provided that alternative procedures are not feasible
19. In determining suspicious effort, which should be ruled out?
D) All of the above
20. What is the most reliable indicator of a developmental reading disorder?
21. All of the following have been reported as being associated with reading disorders except:
D) Reduced volumes in dominant hemisphere perisylvian areas
22. What feature of ADHD is typically not seen in NVLD?
C) Hyperactivity
23. A 25 year-old woman is referred for neuropsychological assessment by her general practitioner because of memory complaints. Information obtained during the clinical interview indicates that she has no memory of a 6-month period of time in 2001, after witnessing the assault of a close friend. Memory for recent events is intact. Based on
this information alone, which of the following is highest on the list of differential
diagnoses:
D) psychogenic amnesia
24. Test-retest reliability is most suitable for evaluating
B) Stable traits, such as aptitude
25. You are informed by the test manual that the test you are using has a reliability coefficient of .81. Therefore, _____% is due to measurement error
A) 19
A reliability coefficient of .81 indicates that 81% of the variance in the test scores depends upon the true variance of the trait being measured, and 19% depends on error variance. Note that you do not square the value of the reliability coefficient in order to find the amount of true score variance.
26. The Striatum is part of the Basal Ganglia and includes which structures?
B) Caudate and Putamen
Globus Pallidus is part of the basal ganglia; the substantia nigra is in the midbrain
27. Of the WAIS factor scores, _____ is least sensitive to neuropsychiatric disorders:
B) VCI
28. In comparing Alzheimers Disease (AD) patients to Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) patients, typically:
delusions are more common in AD patients
B) depression and hallucinations are more common in DLB patients while delusions are more common in AD patients
One of the key features distinguishing Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) from Parkinson’s Dementia is the visual hallucinations seen in DLB. Alzheimer’s patients typically have delusions rather than actual hallucinations.
29. Gender effects have been shown to be least evident on which of the following tests:
A) Test of Memory Malingering (
30. With respect to the WAIS-III factor scores, practice effects are:
B) Largest for Perceptual Organization and smallest for Working Memory
31. In which conditions are confabulations not found?
B) Gerstmanns syndrome
Gerstman’s syndrome is a controversial entity that consists of right-left confusion, dyslexia, dyscalculia, and finger agnosia. It is usually attributed to lesions in the dominant angular gyrus.
In Anton’s syndrome (denial of blindness), blind patients typically confabulate or fantasize about the appearance of objects presented to them. It occurs most often in elderly patients who undergo opthalmogic surgical procedures and cannot see out of their eyes temporarily.
Anosognoia (failure to acknowledge a deficit, usually left side hemiparesis) is often accompanied by confabulation, denial, and “other defense mechanisms” (clearly written by a psychiatrist).
According to Kaufmann, the confabulations in Wernicke-Korsakoff are an uncommon symptom, unless the patients also have marked memory impairments.
32. Which of one of the following statements regarding Heschls gyrus is false:
a) Heschls gyrus is bilateral and located adjacent to the planum temporale.
b) In almost all individuals, the left-sided Heschls gyrus, like the left-sided planum temporale, has greater surface area than its right-sided counterpart.
c) Each Heschls gyrus reflects auditory stimulation predominantly from the
contralateral ear.
d) Heschls gyrus appears to sort auditory stimulation for direction, pitch,
loudness, and other acoustic properties rather than words for their linguistic
properties.
a) Heschls gyrus is bilateral and located adjacent to the planum temporale.
b) In almost all individuals, the left-sided Heschls gyrus, like the left-sided
planum temporale, has greater surface area than its right-sided counterpart.
c) Each Heschls gyrus reflects auditory stimulation predominantly from the
contralateral ear.
d) Heschls gyrus appears to sort auditory stimulation for direction, pitch,
loudness, and other acoustic properties rather than words for their linguistic
properties.
33. In non-fluent aphasia, why is the arm typically more paretic than the leg?
a) The motor cortex for the arm is supplied by the middle cerebral artery
(MCA), which is usually occluded. The motor cortex for the leg is supplied
by the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), which is usually spared.
b) The arm has larger cortical representation
c) The infarct occurs in the internal capsule
d) The motor cortex for the arm is supplied by the ACA, which is usually
occluded.
e) The motor cortex for the leg is supplied by the MCA, which is usually spared.
34. In which disorder(s) is echolalia a symptom?
a) Autism
b) Isolation aphasia
c) Tourettes syndrome
d) All of the above
35. Which of the following is not a feature of Aspergers Disorder:
a) Impaired social interactions
b) Delayed language development
c) Restricted, repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests and
activities.
d) Normal development of age-appropriate self-help and adaptive behavior
36. You are a neuropsychologist who is hired by an attorney (Ms. Smith) to perform a
neuropsychological assessment of Mr. Patient to document cognitive deficits related to a
brain injury following a motor vehicle accident. The attorney hired by the defendants
insurance company (Ms. Jones) contacts you to demand that she be present during the
evaluation. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
a) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Smith to observe the evaluation because Mr.
Patient is his client, but not Ms. Jones
b) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment, but only if Mr.
Patient provides his consent.
c) It is not acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment due to issues
of test security and threats to the validity of the examination.
d) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment, but not the
clinical interview.
37. If forced to take only one test to your new position on a desert island with a need for
neuropsychological assessment, one would be best served to take a test with high _____
in determining who should be flown to the mainland for more extensive
neuropsychological evaluations in moderate base rate conditions.
a) face validity
b) construct validity
c) negative predictive power
d) specificity
e) positive predictive power
38. Conditions that may lead to worsening neurological deficit in acute stroke patients
include:
a) Hypoxia
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Atrial fibrillation (AF)
d) All of the above
39. Clinical features of left posterior cerebral artery (PCA) occlusion include:
a) Right homonymous hemianopsia and hemianesthesia
b) Right hemiballismus
c) Vertigo and ataxia
d) Right hemiparesis
e) Alexia and agraphia
40. A 50 y.o. normotensive man has an episode of sudden loss of vision in the right eye.
This persists for 15 minutes ad then rapidly resolves. He has normal neurological and
opthalmological examination. The mechanism of this episode is most likely:
a) Demyelination of optic nerve
b) Artery-to-artery embolism involving carotid and ophthalmic arteries
c) Thrombosis in situ in carotid artery
d) Optic nerve compression
e) None of the above
41. A 50 y.o. man with atrial fibrillation suddenly becomes confused. He is alert and
attentive. His speech is fluent but he has difficulty following commands. The following
other neurological abnormalities might include:
a) Hemiparesis
b) Acalculia
c) Left lower quadrantanopia
d) Agraphia
e) No focal findings since patient has encephalopathy
42. Which of the following is not a symptom of carotid artery TIA?
a) Paresthesias
b) Anterograde amnesia
c) Hemisensory loss
d) Hemianopsia
e) Transient aphasia
43. Which of the following does not occur in MCA strokes?
a) Upper extremity hemiparesis
b) Aphasia
c) Hemineglect
d) Lower extremity hemiparesis
44. Trazodone is a __________ and may affect neuropsychological test results because it
can make your patient ___________ .
a) Mood stabilizer, restless
b) Anxiolytic, drowsy
c) Antipsychotic, experience psychomotor slowing
d) Antidepressant, drowsy
45. A stroke in which vascular supply would cause dysfluent speech, anomia, intact
comprehension and reading?
a) Left Internal Carotid Artery
b) Right Middle Cerebral Artery
c) Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
d) Left Middle Cerebral Artery
46. A lesion in the lower left optic radiation causes:
a) Right homonymous hemioanopsia with sparing of macular vision
b) Bitemporal hemianopsia
c) Right upper homonymous quadrantanopsia
d) Left lower homonymous quadrantanopsia
47. If you were a patient demonstrating a general lack of concern about your cognitive
deficits, were over the age of 60, and had a clean neurological work-up other than
borderline MMSE, the most likely diagnosis to rule out would be , with a
likelihood of around .
a) Alzheimers disease, 80%
b) unable to determine with data presented
c) Picks dementia, 20%
d) Alzheimers disease, 60%
e) Cerebrovascular accident, 15%.
48. The parvocellular and magnocellular layers of the dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus
a) may represent different visual systems.
b) analyze the same kind of information from the visual field.
c) are connected to the nasal and temporal halves of the retina, respectively.
d) receive input from the contralateral and ipsilateral halves of the visual field,
respectively.
49. Damage limited to the fusiform region of the right hemisphere would be expected to
impair the recognition of ___________ .
a) movement of objects through space.
b) fruits and vegetables.
c) faces.
d) object location.
50. A difficulty in scanning the visual scene is ___________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
b) prosopagnosia.
c) visual agnosia.
d) optic ataxia.
51. A difficulty in using visual guidance to reach for an object is ___________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
b) prosopagnosia.
c) visual agnosia.
d) optic ataxia.
52. Imaging studies of individuals with autism have shown all of the following except:
a) delayed maturation of the frontal lobes
b) reduced activation of the amygdala during processing of facial emotion
c) enlargement of the lateral ventricles
d) overall reduced brain size
53. The inability to perceive more than one object in a visual scene is called ________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
b) prosopagnosia.
c) visual agnosia.
d) simultanagnosia.
54. In Alzheimers disease, which of the following receptors is most severely depleted?
a) Muscarinic acetylcholine
b) Nicotinic acetylcholine
c) Frontal dopamine
d) Nigrostriatal dopamine
55. Which of the dopamine tracks is associated with the positive symptoms of
Schizophrenia?
a) Nigrostriatal
b) Mesolimbic
c) Tubero-innfundibular
d) Mesocortical
56. Which of the dopamine tracks is associated with extrapyramidal motor disorders?
a) Nigrostriatal
b) Mesolimbic
c) Tubero-innfundibular
d) Mesocortical
57. The primary treatment for a communicating hydrocephalus, or normal pressure
hydrocephalus is which results in decreased in the
ventricles. One way to distinguish NPH from a subcortical dementia is .
a) Burr-hole suction, CSF, finger oscillation speed
b) Burr-hole suction with steroid treatment, choroid plexus production of CSF,
falling
c) Shunting, blood, aphasia
d) shunting, CSF, incontinence
58. Treatments that use ABA designs to determine their efficacy are most vulnerable to
the effects of __________ .
a) Learning
b) History
c) Measurement error
d) Abulia
59. The most common sites of brain contusion in TBI, due to jagged bony prominences
abutting brain tissue in the cranial vaults, are:
a) Calcarine fissure and orbitofrontal regions
b) Inferiolateral temporal regions
c) Parietoccipital cortex and dorsolateral frontal regions
d) Anterior temporal lobes and orbitofrontal regions
60. Of the following, which one is not a sign of cerebellar damage?
a) intention tremor
b) dysdiadochokinesia
c) truncal ataxia
d) Hoovers sign
61. When speaking of Tourettes syndrome, which statement would not be completely
accurate?
a) It is four times more common in boys
b) Abnormal MRI and EEG findings correlate highly w/ diagnosis
c) There is autosomal dominant inheritance w/ incomplete penetrance.
d) There is increased incidence of ADHD and OCD
62. Dementia in Parkinsons Disease is least associated with:
a) Akinesia
b) Rapid progression of the illness
c) Being older
d) tremor
63. Which of the symptoms does not typically characterize Dementia with Lewy Bodies?
a) Extrapyramidal signs
b) Visual hallucinations and delusions
c) Pseudobulbar palsy
d) Memory and attentional deficits
64. Which of the following two vascular structures are the only two UNPAIRED vessels
near or a part of the Circle of Willis?
a) posterior cerebellar artery and posterior communicating artery
b) anterior communicating artery and posterior communicating artery
c) basilar artery and anterior communicating artery d) basilar artery and posterior
communicating artery
65. With an understanding that dementia can happen late in the course of MS or possibly
not at all, which MS features are often associated with cognitive impairment?
a) Physical impairments
b) Atrophy
c) Total lesion volume
d) All of the above
66. Symptoms of vertigo, vomiting, transient global amnesia, and nystagmus are
indicative of:
a) Carotid Artery TIAs
b) Basilar Artery TIAs
c) CVA of the MCA
d) Lenticulostriate TIAs
67. Abnormalities with saccades are a hallmark feature of which disease?
a) Parkinsons Disease
b) Huntingtons Disease
c) Epilepsy
d) Dandy-Walker Syndrome
68. Wernickes encephalopathy is caused by thiamine deficiency usually associated
with an alcoholic population. What is the classic triad of symptoms?
a) ataxia, confusional state, eye movement abnormalities
b) vertigo, retrograde amnesia, nystagmus
c) confabulation, retrograde amnesia, conduction aphasia
d) ataxia, vertigo, transient global amnesia
69. Which tremor is associated with parkinsonism?
a) postural
b) intention
c) resting
d) action
e) benign
70. Which seizure type typically is characterized by lip smacking, chewing or other
automatic stereotyped movements, emotional changes (e.g., fear, sadness, or déjà vu
feelings), as well as hallucinations of auditory, tactile, visual, or olfactory sensory
experiences?
a) primary generalized seizure
b) secondary generalized seizure
c) typical simple absence seizures
d) partial (simple or complex) seizure
71. A researcher hypothesizes that students who perform a Milky Way hip flip the night
before their Board Written Exam score higher on the exam than students who dont. She
obtains a sample of 40 students and assigns 20 to the Milky Way hip flip group and 20
to the no Milky Way hip flip group. She concludes, on the basis of a statistical test,
that her hypothesis was correct. In the population, however, there is no difference on the
Board Written Exam between students who do and do not perform a Milky Way hip flip
the night before they take the exam. What type of error has been made?
a) Type I Error
b) Type II Error
c) Sampling error
d) Standard error
72. A study is conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new anti-anxiety medication.
The Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI) is used to measure anxiety levels. If the mean score
of subjects who take the drug is compared to the population mean for anxious subjects on
the BAI, the statistical test that would be used would be:
a) t-test for independent samples
b) t-test for correlated samples
c) t-test for single sample
d) one-way ANOVA
73. An experimenter is testing the hypothesis that there is no difference between
treatment modalities in regards to the scores obtained by patients on a depression
measure. His design calls for two groups psychodynamic treatment versus a CBT
treatment. He uses a t-test to analyze the data at time two as there were no differences
between the groups at time 1. The results are: Group 1 BDI mean = 12; Group 2 mean =
8. The t-value exceeds the tabled critical value at the .01 level for a 2-tailed test. He
should:
a) Accept the null and conclude the alternative hypothesis is false.
b) Reject the null and conclude the alternative hypothesis is supported.
c) Retain the null and conclude that the alternative hypothesis is supported.
d) Not make an interpretation, as the researcher should have used a one-tailed
test.
74. In a study in which a one-way ANOVA is used, the null hypothesis would be that
a) Sample variances are equal.
b) Population variances are equal.
c) Sample means are equal.
d) Population means are equal.
75. A drawback of norm-referenced interpretation is that:
a) A persons performance is compared to the performance of other examinees.
b) It does not permit comparisons of individual examinees scores on different
tests.
c) It does not indicate where the examinee stands in relation to others of the same
population.
d) It does not provide absolute standards of performance.
76. What is the location of pathology that contributes to the classic triad of Wernickes
encephalopathy?
a) basal forebrain and septal nuclei
b) ventral striatum and ventral pallidum
c) cingulate gyrus and temporal pole
d) mammilary bodies and medial diencephalic structures
77. The most likely primary progressive dementia to consider when a patient presents
with primary symptoms of changes in comportment and language is
a) Parkinsons
b) Huntingtons
c) Alzheimers
d) Fronto-Temporal Dementia
e) Primary Progressive Aphasia
78. When evaluating a child with a Nonverbal Learning Disability (NVLD), you would
be most concerned that the child might also have a ____________ Disorder.
a) Reading
b) Mathematics
c) Disorder of Written Expression
d) Expressive Language
79. Sex-dependent penetrance (complete in males; incomplete in females); lack of
asymmetry in the planum temporale; smaller neurons in the left medial geniculate
nucleus (MGN) compared to the right MGN; and possible involvement of chromosome 6
and 15 are findings associated with what developmental disorder:
a) Aspergers Disorder
b) Dyslexia or Reading Disorder
c) ADHD
d) Rett's Disorder
80. Item difficulty index (p) is calculated by dividing the number who answered correctly
by total number of sample. Items with moderate difficulty level are typically retained.
What is the moderate difficulty value of p and why is this value preferred?
a) p=0.5 which helps maximize differentiation of subjects
b) p=0.35 which produces a more face valid test
c) p=0.75 which helps maximize differentiation of subjects
d) p=1.0 which produces normal distribution of scores
81. Which of the following intervention methods for severe memory disorders involves
the prevention of errors during acquisition of information.
a) Self-Instruction Training
b) Massed practice
c) Metacognition Training
d) Errorless Learning
82. Risk factors associated with premature birth include all of the following except:
a) Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)
b) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
c) Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
d) Periventricular Leukomalacia (PVL)
83. Optic neuritis is epidemiologically and pathophysiologically related to
a) AIDS
b) Multiple Sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Menieres disease
84. Which of the following behavioral symptoms is not characteristic of diffuse axonal
injury?
a) decreased mental efficiency
b) decreased complex reasoning ability
c) decreased receptive vocabulary
d) decreased ability to perform mental arithmetic
85. Nuchal rigidity is most likely a sign of which of the following
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Transtentorial herniation
c) Communicating hydrocephalus
d) Epidural hematoma
86. All the following are true except:
a) All valid tests are reliable.
b) The area under the curve (AUC) of an ROC curve reveals the overall accuracy
of a test.
c) All reliable tests are valid.
d) The positive likelihood ratio reveals the likelihood a test-positive patient
actually has the condition.
87. The cognitive profile of depressed patients is characterized by:
a) Slowed mental processing and mild attentional problems
b) Visual-spatial deficits
c) Mild word-finding difficulties and poor memory recognition
d) Lack of awareness of their cognitive difficulties
88. Infarcts and ischemic events are most common in:
a) Anterior cerebral artery
b) Posterior cerebral artery
c) Middle cerebral artery
d) Callosomarginal artery
89. Which of the following statements is false regarding Transient Global Amnesia
(TGA)?
a) It involves an acute onset of retrograde and anterograde amnesia with no
obvious cause
b) It is commonly accompanied by right hemiplegia
c) Following one episode of TGA, there is a low likelihood of subsequent
episodes
d) During an episode of TGA, an individual typically asks the same question over
and over.
90. Tourettes Syndrome is most commonly associated with deficits in _________ .
a) olfaction
b) auditory memory
c) language
d) attention
91. The telencephalon includes:
a) The prosencephalon and the diencephalon
b) The thalamus and cerebral cortex
c) The entire forebrain
d) The cerebral cortex, subcortical white matter, and basal ganglia
92. Which statistical test is used in experimental designs that are most likely to assess
causation?
a) Chi square
b) Pearson r
c) ANCOVA
d) Discriminate Function Analysis
93. Alexia without agraphia can be associated with a __________, if ___________ is also
affected
a) Right PCA infarct, angular gyrus
b) Left PCA infarct, splenium of corpus callosum
c) Left MCA infarct, angular gyrus
d) Left ACA infarct, splenium of corpus callosum
94. Which of the following statements about febrile seizures is false?
a) Febrile seizures occur in about 3-4% of children
b) One simple febrile seizure is not associated with increased risk for epilepsy
c) If one has a single febrile seizure, a second febrile seizure is likely to occur
within one year.
d) Complex febrile seizures last longer than 15 minutes and may have focal
features.
95. When both amygdale have been ablated, the result is usually
a) Emotional hyperactivity
b) Decreased oral tendencies
c) Loss of normal fear
d) Hyposexualism
96. Which of the following statements is false regarding delirium?
a) Delirium refers to a disturbance of consciousness that is accompanied by a
change in cognition
b) Disorientation to time and place are not commonly associated with delirium.
c) Delirium is most common in children and the elderly.
d) Symptoms of delirium typically develop very rapidly and fluctuate throughout
the day.
97. Papezs circuit is a heuristic device to describe:
a) Disorders of speech
b) Disorders of emotion
c) Disorders of reading
d) Disorders of vision
98. What is ventriculomegaly?
a) Atypically developed ventricles associated with migrational disorders
b) Attenuation of cerebral white matter surrounding the ventricles
c) Compressed ventricles associated with mass lesions in the cranium
d) Ventricular enlargement with or without hydrocephalus
99. One of the reasons Parkinson's disease patients do not show symptoms of the disease
until they have lost most of their dopamine-containing axons from the substantia nigra is
that:
a) the remaining cells gradually begin to produce serotonin instead, which is much
more potent than dopamine
b) all of the cell loss occurs in a very brief (less than one week) period of time
c) the receptors on the relevant postsynaptic membranes develop denervation
supersensitivity.
d) the caudate nucleus gradually takes over the functions of the substantia nigra.
100. People born without a corpus callosum (i.e., agenesis of the corpus callosum)
a) cannot verbally describe an object in their left hand if they cannot see it
b) are exceptionally skilled at motor tasks involving their hands.
c) show a general impairment in language abilities.
d) are (in terms of behavior) virtually indistinguishable from people born with a
corpus callosum.
until they have lost most of their dopamine-containing axons from the substantia nigra is that: a) the remaining cells gradually begin to produce serotonin instead, which is much more potent than dopamineb) all of the cell loss occurs in a very brief (less than one week) period of timec) the receptors on the relevant postsynaptic membranes develop denervation supersensitivity. d) the caudate nucleus gradually takes over the functions of the substantia nigra.
100. People born without a corpus callosum (i.e., agenesis of the corpus callosum) a) cannot verbally describe an object in their left hand if they cannot see itb) are exceptionally skilled at motor tasks involving their hands. c) show a general impairment in language abilities. d) are (in terms of behavior) virtually indistinguishable from people born with a corpus callosum.