CTO Study Flash Cards

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  1. The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n)_________________    .
     C. Chief Operating Officer (LP 1, p. 6)
  2. According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of______________________    .
    2.  B. three service areas (LP 1, p. 10)
  3. The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation’s airways in the National Airspace System (NAS)
    are_______________________    .
    B. VORs/VORTACs (LP 1, p. 58)
  4. The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to___________________.
    B. balance system demand with system capacity (LP 1, p. 50)
  5. The mission of the_________________    is to balance air traffic demand with the system’s capacity to ensure that the
    maximum and most efficient utilization of the NAS is maintained
    A. Traffic Management System (TMS) (LP 1, p. 50)
  6. The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to    .
    • A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management
    • directives (LP 1, p. 51)
  7. The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to______________    .
    A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic (LP 1, p. 15)
  8. The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules
    (VFR) traffic is the_____________    .
    C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) (LP 1, p. 24)
  9. The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the___________.
    D. AFSS (LP 1, p. 24)
  10. Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous
    Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?
    B. Broadcast (LP 1, p. 26)
  11. Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?
    C. Compiling statistical data (LP 1, p. 33)
  12. The______________    position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to
    aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways).
    B. Ground Control (LP 1, p. 34)
  13. In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and
    efficient operation of a sector?
    D. Radar Team (LP 1, p. 39)
  14. The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route
    phase of flight is_______________    .
    D. ARTCC (LP 1, p. 41)
  15. The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ___________  position.
    D. Radar Flight Data (LP 1, p. 43)
  16. When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to__________.
    C. separating aircraft (LP 1, p. 16)
  17. Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when_________.
    A. an operational advantage will be gained (LP 1, p. 16)
  18. “Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft” is an example of_____________ .
    A. Operational Priority (LP 1, p. 16)
  19. All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:
    B. Landing (LP 3, p. 2)
  20. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway____________ .
    D. 36 (LP 3, pp. 5, 6)
  21. An  airport  with  three  parallel  runways  with  a  magnetic  heading  of  216  degrees  would  have  runway
    designations of__________________.
    A. 22R, 22C, 22L (LP 3, p. 6)
  22. What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?
    A. Runway side stripes (LP 3, p. 12)
  23. A(n)_______________ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline,
    and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar
    D. displaced threshold (LP 3, p. 13)
  24. A ____________________ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.
    A. blast pad (LP 3, p. 17)
  25. Runway_________________  provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of
    uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
    B. centerlines (LP 3, p. 7)
  26. What color are taxiway edge lights?
    C. Blue (LP 3, p. 33)
  27. Civil land airports have rotating beacons that_____________  .
    A. flash white and green (LP 3, p. 29)
  28. Touchdown  Zone  Lighting  (TDZL)  and  Runway  Centerline  Lights  System  (RCLS)  are  two  types  of____________________.
    C. In-runway lights (LP 3, p. 32)
  29. Threshold lights are_____________  .
    D. green/red (LP 3, p. 31)
  30. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are_____________ .
    A. AIS and NOTAMs (LP 5, p. 3)
  31. Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?
    A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid (LP 5, p. 11)
  32. A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a________________.
    A. NOTAM D (LP 5, p. 6)
  33. A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to
    IFR charts, is classified as a/an:
    D. FDC NOTAM (LP 5, p. 8)
  34. Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to__________.
    B. NFDC (LP 5, p. 13)
  35. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
    A. Airport manager/operator (LP 5, p. 15)
  36. Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are:
    D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY (LP 5, p. 5)
  37. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65?
    B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers (LP 7, p. 8)
  38. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3?
    C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities (LP 7, p. 11)
  39. Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by
    bold_____________ .
    C. vertical lines (LP 7, p. 16)
  40. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
    D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA (LP 7, p.13)
  41. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “may” means that the
    procedure is _____________.
    C. optional (LP 7, p. 20
  42. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8?
    B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA (LP 7, p. 15)
  43. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is_____________ .
    A. shall (LP 7, p. 20)
  44. Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?
    B. GENOT (LP 7, p. 17
  45. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is recommended is____________.   
    C. should (LP 7, p. 21)
  46. What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid
    having instructions scattered among several directives?
    C. Supplements (LP 7, p. 18)
  47. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
    B. FAA Order JO 7110.10  (LP 7, p. 6)
  48. Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?
    C. Aeronautical Information Manual (LP 7, p. 19)
  49. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “will” means_______________ .
    B. not a requirement for application of a procedure (LP 7, p. 21)
  50. Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and______________ .
    D. paragraphs (LP 7, p. 6)
  51. The lower limit of Class B airspace is______________.
    D. the surface (LP 9, p. 6)
  52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
    A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number (LP 9, p. 23)
  53. The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is____________.
    D. FL600 (LP 9, p. 5)D. FL600 (LP 9, p. 5)
  54. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
    A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement (LP 9, p. 17)
  55. A Warning Area is established beyond___________NM from the coast of the United States.
    B. 3 (LP 9, p. 19)
  56. The upper limit of Class G airspace is____________ .
    C. the base of the overlying airspace (LP 9, p. 12)
  57. What airspace contains federal airways?
    C. Class E (LP 9, p. 11)
  58. What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an
    operational control tower?
    B. Class C  (LP 9, p. 8)
  59. Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as___________airspace.
    C. Special Use (LP 9, p. 15)
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