A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Mid/Lower Trapezius
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
Balance- Power Exercise
A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?
Exhaustion
seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?
Strength
Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
The 2nd number or Bottom number
During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?
Ball Cobra
For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?
bicycles or steppers
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?
5-10 Minutes
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
30 seconds minimum
If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
Medial Gastrocnemius
Medial Hamstring Complex
Gracilis
Sartorius
Popliteus
In a client with Lower Crossed Syndrome, Which of the muscles is lengthened?
Anterior Tibialis
Posterior Tibialis
Gluteus Maximus
Gluteus Medius
Transversus abdominis
Internal Oblique
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the muscles is shortened?
Upper Trapezius
Levator Scapulae
Sternocleidomastoid
Scalenes
Latissimus Dorsi
Teres Major
Subscapularis
Pectoralis Major/Minor
Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of Resistance-training system?
Pyramid System
The Gluteus Maximus is responsible for?
Concentrically accelerates Hip Extension and External rotation
The Latissimus Dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which movement?
Concentrically accelerates shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation
the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as?
Relative Flexibility
What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?
Davies Test
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?
Decrease
What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?
Squat, Curl to two-arm press
What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?
The amount of rest time which can often be more time than the actual workout itself.
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?
5-10% of initial load
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
Right upon waking in the morning.
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm dumbbell chest press?
Ball Dumbbell chest press.
What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?
86-90%
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Alternating-arm
What type of exercise is a single-leg power Step-up categorized as?
Plyometric-Power
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
When determining a client’s heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?
(220- age) X 0.76-0.85
When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
The single-set system
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
Seated Row
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
Adductor Complex
Biceps Femoris(short head)
Tensor Fascia Latae
Vastus Lateralis
When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward. Which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
Latissimus Dorsi
Teres Major
Pectoralis Major/Minor
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
two legs
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Balance Strength Exercises
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
a Dorsiflexed position
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
Proprioception
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantarflexion
Posterior Tibialis
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
List core Stabilization exercises appropriate for a new client?
Marching
Floor Bridge
Floor Prone Cobra
Prone Iso-ab
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Standing cable row
Ball Dumbbell row
What is a good example of a stabilization level exercise
Multiplanar Step-up Balance, Curl, to Overhead Press.
What is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
One-ins
Two-ins
Side Shuffle
In-In-Out-Out
In-In-Out(Zigzag)
Ali Shuffle
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted, internally rotated knees?
Pronation Distortion Syndrome
What is considered a Core-Power Exercise?
Rotation Chest pass
What Is considered Subjective Information?
General And Medical history
Occupation
Lifestyle
Medical And Personal Information
What is a good example of Zone 3 Cardio?
Sprinting
What are some of the muscles in the Global Stabilization System?
Quadratus lumborum
Psoas Major
External oblique
Portions of Internal Oblique
Rectus Abdominis
Gluteus Medius
Adductor Complex
What are muscles involved in the Local Stabilization System?
Transversus abdominis
Internal Oblique
Lumbar Multifidus
Pelvic Floor muscles
Diaphragm
What is the movement system?
Includes muscles that attach the spine and/or pelvis to the extremities
What are muscles involved in the movement system?
Latissimus dorsi
Hip Flexors
Hamstring Complex
Quadriceps
Which training system can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training?
Circuit Training
You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
Active Flexibility
You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment. What muscle would you foam roll and static-Stretch?
Adductors
TFL/IT band
Static Supine biceps femoris stretch
Static Standing TFL stretch
What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
Zone 2(76-85%HR max)
How do Blood vessels work?
Transporting blood
Arteries, carry the blood away from the heart, forming smaller arterioles, eventually into microscopic vessels called capillaries. Vessels that collect blood from capillaries (where supplies such as oxygen, nutrients hormones and waste products are exchanged) between tissues. are called venules, that progressively merge with other venules to form veins that transport all the bloood back to hte heart
Define Cardiac Output
Heart Rate X Stroke Volume = The overall performance of the heart
How do the heart Atria function:
Atria gather blood returning to the heart. The right Atrium gather deoxygenated blood returning from the entire body and the left atrium gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs.
What are important functions of the skeletal system:
Provides shape and form to our bodies
Supporting, Protecting and allowing bodily movement
Producing blood for the body
Storing minerals
Primary function of the muscle system:
To move the skeletal system
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, when the feet turn out What are the probable overactive muscles?
Soleus
Lateral Gastrocnemius
Biceps Femoris(Short Head)
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view When the feet turn out, what are the probable underactive muscles?
Medial Gastrocnemius
Medial Hamstring Complex
Gracilis
Sartorius
Popliteus
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view When the feet turn out, name a sample Strengthening Exercise:
Single leg balance reach
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, What are the probable overactive muscles:
Adductor Complex
Biceps Femoris
Tensor Fascia Latae
Vastus Lateralis
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, what are the probable underactive muscles?
Gluteus medius/Maximus
Vastus Medialis Oblique(VMO)
During a Fitness assessment, on the anterior view, When the knees move inward, Name a sample strengthening exercise:
Tube Walking: Side to Side
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When there is excessive forward lean, What are the probable overactive muscles:
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the arms fall forward, Name a sample Strengthening exercise:
Squat To Row
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles:
Upper trapezius
Sternocleidomastoid
Levator Scapulae
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles?
Mid/Lower Trapezius
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Shoulders elevate during a pushing/pulling assessment, name a sample Strengthening exercise:
Ball Cobra
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, What are the probable overactive muscles:
Upper Trapezius
Sternocleidomastoid
Levator Scapulae
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles:
Deep Cervical Flexors
During a Fitness assessment, on the Lateral view, When the Head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment, Name a sample Strengthening exercise:
Chin Tuck(Keep Head in neutral position During all exercises)
Define: Proprioception
An unstable(yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms
What is phase 1 of the OPT model:
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training - Increase muscular endurance and stability while developing optimal neuromuscular efficiency(Coordination)
What is Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Training - Maintain Stabilization endurance while increasing Prime Mover Strength
What would be the Proprioceptive Push-Up progression
Ball Push-up
What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Chest:
Barbell Bench Press(Strength)
Stability Ball Push Up(Stabilization)
What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Back?
Seated Cable Row(Strength)
Stability Ball Dumbell Row(Stabilization)
What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Shoulders:
Shoulder Press Machine(Strength)
Single Leg Dumbbell Press(Stabilization)
What is a phase 2 Example Superset - Legs:
Leg Press(Strength)
Single-Leg Squat(Stabilization)
What is Phase 3 of the OPT Model:
Hypertrophy Training - Increase Muscle Size
What is Phase 4 of the OPT Model:
Maximum Strength Training - Optional Phase depending on Client goal
Increase motor unit recruitment
Improve Peak Force
What is Phase 5 of the OPT model:
Powel training-
Enhance Neuromuscular efficiency
Enhance Prime Mover Strength
increase Rate of Force Production
The Kinetic Chain Checkpoints refer to major joint regions of the body. What are these points:
Foot and Ankle
Knee
Lumbo-Pelvic-Hip Complex(LPHC)
Shoulders
Head And Cervical Spine
Define Epimysium
A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle
Define Perimysium:
The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles
Define Endomysium
The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers
Type 1 Muscle Fibers
(Slow Twitch)
More Capillaries Mitochondria and Myoglobin
Increased Oxygen Delivery
Smaller in size
Less force produced
Slow to Fatigue
Long term contractions(stabilization)
Type II Muscle Fibers:
(Fast Twitch)
Fewer Capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin
Decreased Oxygen Delivery
Larger In size
More Force Produced
Quick To fatigue
Short term Contractions(Force and Power)
Agonist(Prime Mover) for Chest Press?
Pectoralis Major
Agonist(Prime Mover) for Overheard Press?
Deltoid
Agonist(Prime Mover) for Row?
Latissimus Dorsi
Agonist(Prime Mover) for Squat?
Gluteus Maximus, Quadriceps
Synergist(assist prime mover) for Chest press:
Anterior Deltoid, Triceps
Synergist(assist prime mover) for Overhead Press?
Triceps
Synergist(assist prime mover) for Row?
Posterior Deltoid, Triceps
Synergist(assist prime mover) for Squat?
Hamstring Complex
Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Chest Press?
Rotator Cuff
Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Overhead press?
Rotator Cuff
Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Row?
Rotator Cuff
Stabilizer(Stabilize while prime mover and synergist work) for Squat?
Transversus Abdominis
Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Chest Press?
Posterior Deltoid
Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Overhead Press?
Latissimus Dorsi
Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Row?
Pectoralis Major
Antagonist(Oppose Prime Mover) for Squat?
Psoas
Describe the Sliding Filament Theory:
a sarcomere shortens as a result of the Z lines moving closer together
The Z lines converge as the result of myosin heads attaching to the actin filament and asynchronously pulling(power strokes) the actin filament across the myosin resulting in shortening of the muscle fiber.
What is the sliding filament theory:
Describes how his and thin filaments within the sarcomere slide past one another, shortening the entire length of the sarcomere and thus shortening muscle and producing force.
What is Excitation-Contraction coupling?
the process of neural stimulation creating a muscle contraction
Bioenergetics:
The study of energy in the human body
Metabolism
all the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself. The process in which nutrients are acquired, transported, used and disposed of by the body.
exercise metabolism
The examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands placed on the body during exercise.
Substrates
The materials or substance on which an enzyme acts
Carbohydrates:
Organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen which include starches, cellulose and sugars and are an important source of energy. All carbs are eventually broken down into Glucose, a simple sugar
Make up a large portion of animal foods
Glucose
A simple sugar manufactured by the body from carbohydrates, fat and to a lesser extent, protein, which serves as the body's main source of fuel.
Fat:
One of the three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body. Fats help the body use some vitamines and keep the skin healthy.
They also serve as energy stores for the body. in food, there are two types of fats: Saturated and unsaturated,
Triglycerides:
The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.
Protein
Amino acids linked by peptide bonds, which consist of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and usually sulfur and have several essential biologic compounds.
Gluconeogenesis:
The formation of glucose from non-carboydrate souces such as amino acids.
Adenosine Triphosphate
Energy Storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body.
Adenosine Diphosphate
A high-energy compound occurring in all cells from which adenosine triphosphate is formed.
β-oxidation
Beta Oxidation - The breakdown of triglycerides into smaller subunits called free fatty acids(FFA's) to concert FFA's into acyl-CoA molecules which then are available to enter the Krebs cycle and ultimately lead to the production of additional ATP
What the three oxidative processes?
Aerobic Glycolysis
The krebs Cycle
The Electron Transport Chain(ETC)
Excess Postexercise Oxygen Consumption(EPOC):
The state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise
Glycolysis
overall goal is to produce energy
Glucose or Glycogen must be broken down into Glucose-6 Phosphate first
the conversion uses up 1 ATP molecule whereas with glycogen, it does not.
End result is Glucose or glycogen is broken down to either pyruvic acid(aerobic glycosis) or lactic acid(anaerobic glycosis)
2 ATP for each mole or unit of glucose
3 ATP from each unit of glycogen.
Oxidative system
refer to pages 75-76
The myth of the fat burning zone?
Refer to page 80
Arterioles branch out into vessels called?
Capillaries
What term describes the number of heartbeats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
Cardiac Output
where does reoxygenated leave the blood and go out to the entire body?
Left ventricle
what are important functions of the skeletal system?
leverage and support
which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30-50 seconds?
A: ATP-CP
B:Glycolysis
C: Oxidative
D:Krebs Cycle
B; Glycolysis
what is the primary function of the muscular system?
To move the skeletal system
What muscle aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
Pectoralis Minor
Considerations for Special Populations - Youth?
Overhead Squat Assessment
Correcting Compensations when younger could prevent injuries in the future
Progressions based on postural control, not on amount of weight used
Make it fun.
Considerations for special populations - Seniors?
May need to start in sitting position prior to free-standing
level of stabilization determined by the client
A seated position may be the most unstable they can handle.
What is the training strategy for Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training?
Performing exercises in aproprioceptively enriched environ(controlled, unstable), the body is forced to recruit more muscles to stabilize itself,burning more calories.
Corrective flexibility
Low Loads, High Reps
What is the training strategy for Phase 2 Strength Endurance training?
Active Flexibility
Supersets
Moderate loads and reps(8-12)
What is the Training Strategy for Phase 3 Hypertrophy Training?
Active flexibility
High volume, high loads, mod. or low repetitions (6-10)
What is the Training Strategy for Phase 4 Maximal Strength?
Active flexibility
High loads, low repetitions (1-5), longer rest periods.
What is the Training Strategy for Phase 5 Power training?
Dynamic flexibilityb
Supersets: strength/power
Perform all power exercises as fast as can be controlled.
Proprioception?
The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body positions and limb movements.
Mechanoreceptors?
Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues
Muscle Spindles?
Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Golgi Tendon Organs?
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Muscular system?
Series of muscles that move the skeleton
calorie?
The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1°C.
Calorie?
A unit of expression of enregy equal to 1000 cal. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of kilogram or it. of water 1°C.
Kilocalorie?
A unit of expression of energy equal to 1000 calories. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of kilogram or liter of water 1°Celsius.
Isotonic -
Force Is produced, Muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion.
Two components - Eccentric and Concentric phase.
Eccentric -
Moving in the same direction as the resistance.
Decelerates or reduces force
Concentric -
Moving in opposite direction of force
Accelerates or produces force
Isometric -
No visible movement with or against resistance
Dynamically stabilizes force
Isokinetic -
The speed of movement is fixed and resistance varies with the force exerted
Requires sophisticated training equipment often seen in rehabilitation or exercise physiology laboratories
During the force-couple relationship of the internal and External obliques, what is the movement created?
Trunk Rotation
During the Force Couple relationship of the Upper Trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior, what is the movement created?
Upward Rotation of the Scapula
During the Force Couple relationship of the Gluteus Maximus, Quadriceps and Calf muscles, what is the movement created?`
Produce Hip and knee extension during walking, running, stair climbing, etc
During the Force-Couple relationship of the Gastrocnemius, Peroneus Longus and Tibialis Posterior, what is the movement created?
Performing Plantarflexion at the foot and ankle complex.
During the Force-Couple relationship of the Delotid and the Rotator Cuff, what is the movement created?
Shoulder Abduction
Muscle Synergies during a squat?
quadriceps, Hamstring Complex, Gluteus Maximus
Muscle Synergy during overhead press?
Deltoid, Rotator Cuff, Trapezius
Clients must learn whether they are moving in the right direction, and
if course corrections are needed. Which is
the best tool for this type of learning?
Self- Monitoring
During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus in the transverse plane what movement is occurring at the joint?
A: Hip Flexion
B: Hip Internal Rotation
C: Hip Extension and Internal rotation
D: Hip Flexion and Internal Rotation
C: Hip Extension and Internal rotation
How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?
Four Years
How Many Calories are in One Gram of Protein?
4
How Many Calories are in one gram of fat?
9
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the
resistance portion of the stabilization endurance level of training?
A: 0-2
B: 1-3
C: 2-4
D: 3-5
B: 1-3
How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the power phase of training?
A: 0-2
B: 1-3
C: 2-4
D: 3-5
D: 3-5
How much communication is non-verbal?
55%
How much water should men and Women consume on a daily basis?
3.0L a day for men, 2.2L a day for women
If you are training a beginning client, who has never worked out before how many exercises per body part should be performed?
A: 0-1
B: 1-2
C: 2-3
D: 3-4
B:1-2
In the preparation for the rotation chest pass, the clients should be:
Feet planted shoulder width apart
Standing upright with the body turned at a 90 degree angle to the wall or partner
Most fintess workouts consisting of 8-12 repititons use which of the following energy systems?
A: ATP-PC
B:Glycolysis
C: OxidativeD:Phosphagen
B: Glycolysis
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
A: exciting the muscle spindle
B: Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
C: Stimulating the Golgi Tendon Organ
D: Inhibiting signal to the interneurons
C: Stimulating the Golgi Tendon Organ
The active supine biceps femoris stretch is an example of which of the following?
The adaptation of Endurance is achieved by which of the following?
A: 8-10 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
B: 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
C: 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
D:12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
B: 12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
The chance of obesity-related health problems increase when a persons BMI exceeds:
25
What does the A represent in the acronym READ?
Assessment
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?
2.0 CEU within 2 years
What is the most effective way to accomplish weight loss long-term?
Controlled Calorie Diet
What part of the heart is responsible for pumping reoxygenated blood out to the rest of the body?
a. Left Ventricle
b. Right Ventricle
c. Left Atrium
d. Right Atrium
A: Left Ventricle
What type of insurance must a trainer maintain?
Liability
When consuming a low carbohydrate diet, which of the following is responsible for the rapid weight loss?
a. Loss of water
b. Loss of body fat
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Increase of energy
A: Loss of water
When participating in a marathon, what is the preferred form of energy?
Fats
When performing a single-leg hip rotation exercise, how many repetitions should be performed each leg?
a. 6 to 10
b. 11-15
c. 1-4
d. 16-20
A: 6-10
When performing CPR, how should the compressions be administered?
Firm and Deep
When performing the strengthening exercise, single-leg balance reach for
the feet turning out compensation, what is the proper repetition range
to use?
a. 1-8
b. 6-10
c.11-18
d. 12-24
B: 6-10
When starting with a brand new client who has never worked out, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
a. single-set
b.circuit training
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Split-set
A: Single set
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
a. Box Jumps
b. Tuck jumps
c. One-ins
d. Butt kicks
C: One-ins
When training a client with Arthritis who has never worked out before,
it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?
5 minutes
When using the proprioceptive continuum, whichis is the correct progression given the foam pad, half foam roll, floor, balance disc, balance beam?
When working with a client with hypertension which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?
a. Ball Cobra
b. Standing Cobra
c.floor bridge
d. isometric squat
B: Standing Cobra
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Davies test
b. Shark skills test
c. Bench press
d. Single-leg squat
D: Single-leg squat
When working with a senior client who is just starting out in Phase 1,
which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
a. Seated Chest Press
b. Ball Dumbbell Chest Press
c. Barbell Chest Press
d. TRX Chest Press
A: Seated Chest Press
When working with a senior client, as a trainer you should expect which of the following?
a. Maximal exercise heart rate will decrease
b. Maximal oxygen uptake will increase
c. Body fat will increase
d. Exercise will increase the chance of heart disease
B: Maximal oxygen Uptake will increase
Where in the digestion process are protein strands broken down?
Stomach
Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and muscular control?
a. Single- leg squat
b. Davies test
c. Single leg star test
d. Shark Skill test
d. Shark Skill test
Which of the following best describes when a person in ready to move to stage two cardiorespiratory training from stage one?
C. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes
Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?
a. Body Mass Index
b. Circumference measurements
c. Skinfold Measurements
d. Waist to hip ratio
B: Circumference Measurements
Which of the following core exercises is most appropriate for an obese client?
a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab
b. Marching
c. Ball Crunch
d. Floor Prone Cobra
a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab
Which of the following describes the acronym SMART?
a. Specific, meaningful, attainable, realistic, timely
b. Specific, measurable, accountable, realistic, timely
c. Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, timely
d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric- power exercise?
a. Repeat box jumps
b. Lunge jumps
c. Box run steps
d. Jump rope
c. Box run steps
Which of the following exercises take place in the sagittal plane of motion?
a. Front Lunge
b. Side Lunge
c. Side Shuffle
d. Swinging a bat
A: Front Lunge
Which of the following exercises take place in the frontal plane of motion?
a. Front Lunge
b. Side Lunge
c. Vertical Jumping
d. Throwing
b. Side Lunge
Which of the following exercises would be categorized as a core power exercise?
a. Ball Crunch
b. Back Extension
c. Soccer throw
d. Marching
c. Soccer Throw
Which of the following fatty acids has had hydrogen added to it in order to increase shelf-life?
a. Trans-fatty acids
b. Saturated fatty acids
c. Monounsaturated fatty acids
d. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
a. Trans-Fatty acids
Which of the following in an effect of dehydration?
a. Increased blood volume
b. Increase sweat rate
c. Increased heart rate
d. Increased blood flow to the skin
c. Increased Heart Rate
Which of the following is a common force couple?
a. Trapezius and rotator cuff during lateral shoulder raise
b. Gluteus Maximus and psoas during a squat
c. Deltoid and lattissimus dorsi during a shoulder press
d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw
d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw
Which of the following is a core strength-level exercise?
a. Soccer throw
b. Floor prone cobra
c. Cable lift
d. Ball Cobra
c. Cable Lift
Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?
a. Control center for movement production
b. Structural framework for the body
c. Coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
d. Command to move the skeletal system
d. Command to move the skeletal system
Which of the following is a goal of strength level training?
a. Increase rate of force production
b. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
c. Increase lean body mass
d. Increase flexiblity
c. Increase lean body mass
Which of the following is a kinetic chain check point for the overhead squat assessment when assessing from the lateral view?
a. Feet
b. Knees
c. Shoulder complex
d. Head
c. Shoulder complex
Which of the following is a normal stroke volume for an adult?
a. 70 mL/beat
b. 85 mL/beat
c. 90 mL/beat
d. 60 mL/beat
a. 70 mL/beat
Which of the following is a possible injury of lower crossed syndrome?
a. Plantar fasciitis
b. Hamstring complex strain
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Posterior knee pain
b. Hamstring complex strain
Which of the following is a proper superset for Strength Endurance Training?
a. Push-up followed by bench press
b. Push-up followed by soccer throw
c. Bench press followed by push-up
d. Soccer throw followed by push-up
c. Bench press followed by push-up
Which of the following is a sign of pronation distortion syndrome?
a. Knee adduction
b. Knee abduction
c. Foot internal rotation
d. Foot supination
a. Knee adduction
Which of the following is a Stabilization Endurance exercise?
a. Lunge to two-arm dumbbell press
b. Ball dumbbell chest press
c. Two-arm medicine ball chest press
d. Seated cable row
b. Ball dumbbell chest press
Which of the following is a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
a. Restrictive lung disease
b. Coronary heart disease
c. Chronic obstructive lung disease
d. Insulin resistance
d. Insulin resistance
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
a. Active listening
b. Asking questions
c. Reflecting
d. Summarizing
c. Reflecting
Which of the following is a total body strength-level exercise?
a. Squat thrusters
b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
c. Single-leg Romanian dead lift, curl to overhead press
d. Single-leg squat to row
b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
Which of the following is about having an attitude and genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
a. Active listening
b. Asking questions
c. Reflecting
d. Summarizing
a. Active listening
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
a. How long has this been a goal?
b. What are you trying to achieve?
c. What is your height?
d. Is it important for you to reach your goal?
b. What are you trying to achieve?
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the maximal strength phase of training?
a. 12-20
b. 8-12
c. 5-10
d. 1-5
d. 1-5
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the hypertrophy phase of training?
a. 12-20
b. 8-15
c. 6-12
d. 1-5
c. 6-12
Which of the following is the correct order for the stage of change model?
a. Precontemplation, Preparation, Contemplation, Action, Maintenance
b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
c. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Action, Continuance, Maintenance
d. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, continuation
b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
a. 1-3 mg/kg
b. 3-6 mg/kg
c. 1-3 mg/lb
d. 3-6 mg/lb
b. 3-6 mg/kg
Which of the following is the maximum number of sets a client should complete in a given workout?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
c. 36
Which of the following is the middle layer of muscular connective tissue?
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epymysium
c. Perimysium
Which of the following is the process of asking your clients why to get to what their motivations are?
a. Psychoanalysis
b. READ principle
c. Motivation
d. Root cause analysis
d. Root cause analysis
Which of the following is the proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for Zone 1?
a. (200-clients age)x (60% and 70%)
b. (220-clients age)x (65% and 70%)
c. (200-clients age)x (60% and 75%)
d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
Which of the following is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute?
a. Blood pressure
b. Heart rate
c. Stroke volume
d. Cardiac output
d. Cardiac output
Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer?
a. Design a nutrition plan for a client
b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
c. Massage a client
d. Diagnose and illness
b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
Which of the following muscles are lengthened when upper crossed syndrome is present?
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Deep cervical flexors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Scalenes
b. Deep cervical flexors
Which of the following muscles are shortened when lower crossed syndrome is present?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Internal oblique
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Posterior tibialis
c. Latissimus Dorsi
Which of the following muscles is shortened in pronation distortion syndrome?
a. Soleus
b. Anterior Tibialis
c. Vastus Medialis
d. Gluteus Medius
a. Soleus
Which of the following muscles is shortened with upper crossed syndrome?
a. Deep cervical flexors
b. Rhomboids
c. Teres Minor
d. Scalenes
d. Scalenes
Which of the following muscles is used during the expiration phase of breathing?
a. Diaphragm
b. Internal Intercostals
c. External Intercostals
d. Pectoralis Minor
c. External Intercostals
Which of the following nutrients aids in maintaining muscle mass?
a. Water
b. Carbohydrates
c. Protein
d. Fat
b. Carbohydrates
Which of the following protein recommendation is correct for a client with the goal of increasing lean body mass?
a. 0.4 to 0.6 g/lb
b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
c. 0.4 to 0.6 g/kg
d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg
b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
Which of the following represents the importance of acute variables?
a. Necessary for advanced clients
b. Only needed for training athletes
c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
d. Ensure proper kinetic chain alignment
c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the
foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air
d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground
Which of the following tempos is most appropriate for the adaptation of stabilization?
a. 4/2/1
b. 3/2/1
c. 1/1/1
d. x/x/x
a. 4/2/1
Which of the following would be categorized as a core stabilization exercise?
a. Ball crunch
b. Cable roation
c. Reverse crunch
d. Prone Iso-abs
d. Prone Iso-abs
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?
a. Phase 1 only
b. Phase 1 and 2 only
c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
d. Phase 1, 2, 3, and 5
b. Phase 1 and 2 only
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of improving sports performance?
a. Phase 5 only
b. Phase 1 and 2 only
c. Phase 1, 2, and 3
d. Phase 1, 2, and 5
d. Phase 1, 2, and 5
Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?
a. Specific
b. Measurable
c. Attainable
d. Realistic
c. Attainable
Who must supervise a client when they are following an 800- 1000 calorie per day diet?
A medical professional
You have a client with obstructive lung disease. Which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
a. Circuit Training
b. Vertical Loading
c. Horizontal Loading
d. Peripheral Heart Action
d. Peripheral Heart Action
What is the isolated Function of the Anterior Tibialis?
Concentrically accelerates dorsiflexion and inversion
What is the isolated function of the Posterior Tibialis?
Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.
What is the isolated function of the Soleus?
Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion
What is the isolated function of the gastrocnemius?
Concentrically accelerates plantarflexion
Whta is the isolated function fo the peronues longus?
Concentrically plantarflexes and everts the foot
What is the isolated function of the Biceps femoris - long head?
Concentrically accelerates knee flexion and hip extension
tibial external rotation
What is the isolated function of the semimembranosus?
Concentrically accelerates knee flexion, hip extension and tibial internal rotation
What is the isloated function of the semitendinosus?
Concentrically accelerates knee flexion, hip extension and tibial internal rotation
what is the isolated function of the Vastus Lateralis?
Concentrically accelerates knee extension
What is the isolated function of the vastus medialis?
concentrically accelerates knee extension
what is the isolated function of the vastus intermedius?
concentrically accelerates knee extension
What is the isolated function of the rectus femoris?
Concentrically accelerates knee extension and hip flexion
What is the isolated function of the adductor longus
Concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function aof the adductor magnus-anterior fibers?
concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the adductor magnus - posterior fibers?
Concentrically accelerates hip adduction, extension and external rotation
What is the isolated function of the adductor brevis?
concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the Gracilis?
concentrically acclerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the Pectineus?
concentrically accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the gluteus medius?
Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation(anterior Fibers)
concentrically accelerates hip abduction and external rotation(Posterior Fibers)
What is the isolated function of the gluteus Minimus?
Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the gluteus maximus?
concentrically accelerates hip extension and external rotation
What is the isolated function of the TFL?
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, abduction and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the psoas?
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external rotation
concentrically extends and rotates lumbar spine.
WHat is the isolated function of the Iliacus?
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion and external rotation
What is the Isolated function of the sartorius?
Concentrically accelerates hip flexion, external rotation and abduction
concentrically accelerates knee flexion and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the piriformis?
Concentrically accelerates hip external rotation, abduction and extension
What is the isolated function of the Rectus Abdominis?
Concentrically accelerates spinal flexion, lateral flexion and rotation.
What is the isolated function of the external oblique?
spinal flexion, lateral flexion and contralateral rotation
what is the isloated function of the internal oblique?
spinal flexion, lateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation.
What is the isolated function of the transverse abdominis?
increases intra-abdominal pressure
supports the abdominal viscera.
What is the isolated function of the diaphragm?
Concentrically pulls the central tendon inferiorly, increasing the volume in the thoracic cavity.
What is the isolated function of the latissimus dorsi?
shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation
What is the isolated function of the serrratus anterior?
Scapular protraction
What is the isolated function of the rhomboid major?
Concentrically produces scapular retraction and downward rotation.
What is the isolated function of the rhomboid minor?
concentrically produces scapular retraction and downward rotation
What is the isolated function of the lower trapezius?
concentrically accelerates scapular depression
what is the isloated function of the middle trapezius?
scapular retraction
What is the isolated function fo the upper trapezius?
cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation
scapular elevation
What is the isloated function of the Pectoralis major?
Shoulder flexion(clavicle fibers), horizontal adduction and internal rotation
What is the isloated function of the pectoralis minor?
protacts the scapula
What is the isolated function of the anterior deltoid?
shoulder flexion and internal rotation
What is the isloated function of the medial deltoid?
Shoulder abduction
what is the isolated function of the posterior deltoid?
shoulder extension and external rotation
what is the isolated function of the teres major?
shoulder internal rotation, adduction and extension
What are the isolated functions of the teres minor and infraspinatus?
