Pharmacology - Chapter 12

  1. inhibitory neurotransmitter involved with the effects of diazepam tranquilizers; originally though to account for the majority of ivermectin's clinical signs until glutamate was discovered to be the primary neurotransmitter that accounts for ivermectin effects.
  2. tapeworm segments
  3. type of cholinergic receptors that, when stimulated, produce muscle tremors and eventually paralysis
    nicotinic receptors
  4. compounds that specifically inhibit coccidia protozoa
  5. means "dilated pupils"
  6. term used to describe compounds that kill flukes
  7. means that the drug expels the worms while they are still alive
  8. condition that occurs after recovery from acute organophosphate toxicosis
    delayed neurotoxicity
  9. type of cholinergic receptors that, when stimulated, produce the classic SLUDDE signs of organophosphate toxicosis
    muscarinic receptors
  10. anthelmintics that kill both internal and external parasites
  11. neurotransmitter associated with parasympathetic effects
  12. general term used to describe compounds that kill a wide range of internal parasites
  13. molecule responsible for moving drugs like ivermectin from the CNS into the blood; part of the blood-brain barrier functional mechanism
  14. term used to describe compounds that kill worms that are round in cross-section
  15. inhibitory neurotransmitter through now to account for the effects of ivermectin
  16. refers to something that floats along in the blood vessel until it lodges and causes obstruction
  17. type of drug that kills heartworm adult worms
  18. term used to describe compounds that kill protozoa
  19. parasites that live on the outside of the animal's body
  20. means "coughing up blood"
  21. means "kills parasite eggs"
  22. enzyme that destroys acetylcholine to terminate acetylcholine's action
  23. means "itching"
  24. term used to describe compounds that kill tapeworms
    anticestodal, cestocides, or taeniacides
  25. compounds that kill the young produced by adult heartworms
  26. means that an insecticide is much more poisonous to the parasite than it is to the host animal
    selective toxicity
  27. Identify the active ingredient:

  28. Identify the active ingredient:

  29. Identify the active ingredient:

  30. Identify the active ingredient:

  31. Identify the active ingredient:

    milbemycin oxime
  32. Identify the active ingredient:

  33. Identify the active ingredient:

    milbemycin oxime + lufenuron
  34. Identify the active ingredient:

  35. Identify the active ingredient:

    Strongid, Nemex
  36. Identify the active ingredient:

  37. Identify the active ingredient:

    Frontline, Top Spot
  38. Identify the active ingredient:

  39. one of the safest groups of the external insecticides; characterized by its quick knock down; made from chrysanthemum
  40. group of internal and external antiparasitic drugs that works primarily by stimulation of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glutamate's receptors
    macrolides (avermectins and milbemycins)
  41. originally developed for deodicosis; extremely toxic if ingested; alpha-2-agonist
  42. toxicosis from this endectocide results in CNS depression and is exhibited by ataxia, depression, blindness, and coma; toxicosis may last for several days
  43. safe roundworm medication found in grocery stores; once-a-month OTC dewormer; no effect on worms other than ascarids; vermifuge
  44. topically administered endectocide; used to control fleas and ticks, ear mites, sarcoptic mange, and as a heartworm preventative for dogs and cats; avermectin-type drug
  45. antiprotozoal used primarily in calves and avian species; similar in structure to thiamin and therefore acts by causing a thiamin deficiency
  46. aresenical adulticide against dirofilaria; requires a deep IM injection
  47. drugs blocked from getting to the brain by P-glycoprotein
    macrolides (avermectins and milbemycins)
  48. group of insecticides that works by blocking acetylcholinesterase
    organophosphates and carbamates
  49. milbemycin type of antiparasitic approved for use in cattle and horses; was the active ingredient in the 6-month heartworm preventative ProHeart
    moxidectin (Cydectin in cattle, Quest in horses)
  50. prototype drug for the benzimidazoles; attacks beta-tubulin in the parasite cells; has antiinflammatory and antifungal activity so is used in some ear medications
  51. antiprotozoal drug developed to be effective against the agent that causes EPM
  52. microfilaricide most commonly used (not milbemycin)
  53. benzimidazole anthelmintic; approved for use in dogs, horses, and livestock; must be given for 3 consecutive days in the dog to be effective; includes the trade name livestock medication Safe-Guard
  54. antinematodal; considered very safe; effective against hookworms as well as ascarids; pleasant-tasting liquid suspension administered PO; often combined with other anthelmintics like praziquantel or ivermectin
  55. toxic signs include SLUDDE signs or muscle tremors progressing to paralysis
  56. single-treatment tapeworm medication; effective against many different species of tapeworms, including Echinococcus
  57. heartworm preventative avermectin approved for use in cats and dogs once a month as an oral medication; was the first canine heartworm preventative
  58. orally administered macrolide heartworm preventative but not an avermectin; also approved to control hookworm, ascarid, and whipworm infection
    milbemycin oxime
  59. topically applied flea insecticide; put between the shoulder blades; wide margin of safety; blocks nicotinic cholinergic receptor site for acetylcholine
  60. flea tablet; inhibits chitin formation in larvae and egg; in an IDI
  61. daily administered oral heartworm preventative medication; has largely been replaced by the monthly use of avermectins and milbemycins
    diethylcarbamazine (DEC)
  62. macrolide heartworm preventative for use in cats and dogs that is similar in structure and mechanism of action as the avermectins; also approved to treat ear mites in cats
  63. antibacterial drug that is also antiprotozoal, especially against Giardia; has neurologic side effects at high doses
  64. injectable and pour-on avermectin-type drug approved for use in cattle and swine to treat several internal parasites, grubs, lice, and mange; has been reported to have caused severe adverse reactions in other species, including fatalities in dogs
  65. insecticides associated with SLUDDE signs
    organophosphates and carbamates
  66. added to pyrethrins to increase their killing activity; a synergist drug
    piperonyl butoxide
  67. topically applied insecticide; removes the inhibitory effect of GABA on the nervous system, causing overstimulation of the insect and death; is very safe because the receptor site for this drug in insects is very different from the receptor site in mammals; can be toxic to some fish
  68. antidote for organophosphate or carbamate toxicosis; readily available in most veterinary practices; blocks acetylcholine receptor
  69. oral tablet flea adulticide; rapid death of the fleas; nicotine type compound, so stimulates muscle movement of the fleas initially then paralyzes them; animals may have a transient period of increased itching after administration because of seizurelike activity of the fleas as they die
  70. JHM for fleas; larvae do no mature to adults; adulticide activity is minimal; similar to methoprene
  71. insect repellent often used in human repellent products; can cause neurologic side effects
    DEET (diethyltoluamide)
  72. True or False

    Heartworm disease can be acquired from a blood transfusion taken from a heartworm-positive dog that has circulating microfilaria.
    false. Microfilaria are not capable of developing into adult heartworms until they are picked up by the mosquito and molt within the mosquito. The infective larvae injected into another animal by the mosquito migrate through tissue and spend a relatively small amount of time in the blood. Also, because there are very few migrating infective larvae in the body, the chances of the infective larvae being in the blood and being taken up in a transfusion are very, very thin.
  73. True or False

    Cats should be treated for adult heartworms with melarsomine.
    false. Cats with adult heartworms are not treated with adulticides, as the risk of fatal emboli and lung inflammatory reactions is too great. Thus the adult heartworms are allowed to die naturally one at a time and any inflammatory reaction is treated with corticosteroids or other medications.
  74. True or False

    The "L" in SLUDDE stands for "locomotion".
    false. Lacrimation (tear production)
  75. True or False

    Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter.
    false. It is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Stimulation of the flutamate receptor inhibits the nervous system, and blocking glutamate's effect allows domination of excitatory neurotransmitters.
  76. True or False

    Live ascarid worms may be expelled after administration of piperazine.
  77. what dog breed is more susceptible to ivermectin toxicosis?
  78. You have a god that presented to the hospital after ingestion of diazinon, an organophosphate insecticide commonly found in lawn applications for grubs. What is the readily available first drug of choice for treatment of this toxicosis? Does this drug have an advantage or disadvantage over glycopyrrolate? What other less-available drug is also used? What are the differences in their mechanisms of actions?
    Atropine is always the first drug of choice. Atropine will block the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and reverse the SLUDDE signs. This reduces the respiratory secretions and helps bronchodilate the airways, thus reducing dyspnea. Glycopyrrolate is also a drug that acts similar to atropine and is used as a preanesthetic agent like atropine. However, glycopyrrolate does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier as readily and therefore will not produce a significant reversal of OP toxicosis sings in the brain compared with atropine. The other drug used is 2-PAM. This drug does not block the acetylcholine receptor like atropine but actually pulls the organophosphate molecule away from the acetylcholinesterase enzyme molecule to allow the acetylcholinesterase to begin working again.
  79. A client calls and is somewhat angry because the veterinarian gave his dog an injection of a wormer and he is not seeing any worms come out as he does with the store-bought medicine for worms. You look on the record and see the medication given was praziquantel. What do you tell this pet owner?
    Praziquantel (Droncit) is given to eliminate tapeworms. Because it breaks down the tapeworm's ability to protect itself against intestinal enzymes, the worm is digested and does not appear in the stool.
  80. An owner, whose dog was successfully treated for heartworms with melarsomine 2 weeks ago, calls and is quire frustrated at having to keep the dog inside or on leash-only-exercise. "He seems fine and is very energetic. Can he be allowed to run in the fenced-in backyard?" What should you say?
    While the dead adult heartworms are breaking down, large chunks of these worms may float down the bloodstream from the heart and lodge in the lungs, where they can cause pulmonary emboli and severe inflammation that can potentially kill the dog. If the dog exercises or gets really excited and the heart beats more rapidly and forcefully, there is a greater chance of a large chunk of worm breaking off and causing this severe reaction. While this is more likely to occur during the first 2 weeks after adulticide therapy, these reactions can occur up to 4 to 6 weeks after adulticide treatment.
  81. A client asks you a question about the heartworm preventative you have been instructed to dispense to her. "My parents always had to give a daily heartworm preventative and their veterinarian always said it was really bad to give it if the dog already had heartworms. Do we have the same risk if the dog has heartworms and we put him on this once-a-month heartworm preventative?"
    Diethylcarbamazine was known to produce a potentially severe reaction in approximately 20% of dogs that had adult heartworms. This type of reaction is not seen with the macrolide heartworm preventatives. There may be a reaction ranging from diarrhea to even a mild shocklike syndrome in heartworm-positive dogs put on once-a-month heartworm preventatives; however, these reactions are rare.
  82. Pyrethrins and pyrethroids are safe insecticides commonly found in premise sprays and foggers. A pet store owner want to fog his store with a pyrethrin product to get rid of the spiders and other bugs that inhabit the various nooks and crannies. Are there any problems with pyrethrin use in this situation?
    Although pyrethrins and pyrethroids have selective toxicity and are quite safe in mammals when properly used, fish unfortunately readily absorb pyrethrins and do not have the enzymes to break these products down very efficiently. Therefore all the fish (and perhaps the amphibians) may be at risk from exposure to the fogger. It might be better to use a directed premise spray on problem areas instead of using a fogger.
  83. What should clients be advised about any amitraz-type of flea or tick collar?
    Amitraz has been reported to cause illness and even death if ingest by pets or children. Often flea and tick collars have excess length that needs to be trimmed off to properly fit the collar to the pet. The soft, chewable material of the collar makes it attractive to teething children or chewing pets. It is extremely important that these trimmed parts are disposed of in a way that prevents children or other pets from having access to them.
  84. Why should amitraz mange, flea, or tick products not be used on animals that are also being treated with medication for behavioral problems?
    Amitraz inhibits the enzyme MAO. Certain behavior modification drugs are also MAOIs. Thus the combined MAO inhibiting effects of both drugs could have significant side effects (CNS stimulation, hyperactivity, behavioral disturbances, etc.). The use of TCAs and SSRIs should also be avoided when amitraz is being used.
  85. Why is it that IDIs, IGRs, and JHMs such as lufenuron, methoprene, or pyriproxygen are incomplete solutions to flea problems? Why do they not provide the pet with immediate relief from fleas?
    All these compounds only prevent the immature stages of fleas from progressing. They are not effective in killing the already existing population of adult fleas. Thus the owner needs to use a flea adulticide drug along with these products to provide immediate relief from the biting of the adult fleas living on the pet.
Card Set
Pharmacology - Chapter 12
Pharmacology - Dr. Younger