1. The RGB is a two-stage planetary reduction drive to reduce the power turbine output shaft speed of over _______ RPM to the propeller operating speed of _____ RPM.
    30,000; 2,000
  2. Placing the PCL to OFF triggers a microswitch activating the feather dump solenoid valve that _____________.
    dumps oil pressure allowing the feathering spring and counterweights to feather the propeller
  3. When feathered, the propeller blades are ___________.
    aligned nearly straight into the wind
  4. If PMU function is lost or deactivated, the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to maintain Np at or below _____.
    100±2% RPM
  5. With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below ____.
    106% RPM
  6. Non-engine related functions performed by the EDM include _________.
    • fuel balancing and quantity indication
    • determination and display of cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure
    • determination and display of DC volts and DC amps
    • determination and display of hydraulic pressure and NACWS
  7. The power management unit (PMU) is normally powered by the ______.
    permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
  8. T or F: The PMU also provides engine protection for airstart capability. During an airstart, automatic N1, ITT and torque limit protection is available; however the pilot should still monitor all parameters and abort the start manually if necessary.
  9. Illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicates what condition?
    • Faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits
    • PMU has been switched OFF
    • PMU system is in the manual mode
  10. In relation to the Fire Warning System, power for FIRE 2 is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded FIRE 2, located on ___________.
    Generator Bus
  11. Illumination of the PMU STATUS annunciator one minute after landing (weight-on-wheels activation) indicates what?
    Fault conditions that are not serious enough to revert the system to manual were encountered in flight
  12. Illumination of the PMU STATUS annunciator in flight indicates all but which of the following?
    Fault conditions exist that are not serious enough to revert the system to manual
  13. The fuel system provides approximately _____ of usable fuel through the single point refueling system.
    1100 pounds
  14. Which of the following is NOT a result of pulling the emergency firewall shutoff handle?
    The engine compartment extinguisher bottle is armed
  15. If gravity (over the wing) refueling is accomplished, fuel quantity increases by ____ pounds (approximately ____ gallons).
    100; 15
  16. T or F: With FP FAIL annunciation, the low fuel warning lights will no longer provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.
  17. The electric boost pump:
    • provides fuel for engine start
    • serves as a backup to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
  18. If the red GEN annunciator illuminates, what equipment is automatically shed?
    air conditioning
  19. If the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight, _______.
    cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after flight
  20. The inverted fuel pickup system provides a minimum _____ supply of fuel regardless of orientation.
    15 seconds
  21. If the generator has failed and the BUS TIE switch is in the NORM position, then the battery will power:
    all items except the air conditioner
  22. If the generator bus has failed (red GEN BUS annunciator illuminated) and the BUS TIE switch is in the NORM position, _______.
    • The items on the generator bus will not be powered
    • The generator will continue to power the battery bus and charge the battery
  23. What do the red bands on the brake reservoir filler plug indicate?
    The system requires servicing (top) or is overserviced (lower)
  24. If the generator fails while the BUS TIE annunciator is illuminated, expect a minimum of ___ of battery power to the battery bus items.
    30 minutes
  25. The hydraulic pump pressurizes the normal system and emergency accumulator to ______ psi.
    3000 ± 120
  26. Once hydraulic pressure exceeds ____ psi, the system can power the landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering.
  27. The T-6 hydraulic system powers which of the following systems?
    • landing gear and main gear doors
    • nosewheel steering
  28. T or F: If the hydraulic fluid level is not FULL AC or FULL AD, then depressurize the emergency accumulator by pulling the manual pressure release handle until the fluid level indicates FULL AD.
  29. What does an amber EHYD PX LO annunciator signify?
    Emergency hydraulic accumulator pressure below 2400±150 psi
  30. Pulling the emergency gear extension handle in the front cockpit:
    • allows emergency extension of the landing gear and flaps
    • isolates the main hydraulic system at the power pack slide assembly
    • releases the emergency accumulator pressure through independent emergency lines for the respective hydraulic components
  31. The aural landing gear position warning indicates:
    • Gear handle not DOWN, PCL below approximately 87% N1, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps UP or TAKEOFF
    • All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG
    • Weight on wheels with the gear handle not DOWN
  32. What are the cockpit indications after emergency extension of the landing gear?
    Red light in the gear handle, green nose gear indication, red and green indicators for each main gear
  33. T or F: The landing gear cannot be retracted after being extended with the emergency system.
  34. T or F: Electrical power is not required to use the emergency gear extension system.
  35. TO indicates the takeoff flap setting and corresponds with ____ degree deflection. LDG indicates the landing flap setting and corresponds with ____ degree deflection.
    23; 50
  36. The nosewheel is a free castoring type with ______ degrees of castor (______ degrees either side of center).
    160; 80
  37. T or F: In the event of wing flap failure, the flaps are hinged to the lower surface of the wing and can be visually verified from the rear cockpit.
  38. Which of the following will NOT cause the speed brake to automatically retract?
    Raise landing gear handle
  39. What is true regarding flap operation when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power?
    • Normal flap operation is unavailable
    • Flap position indication is unavailable
    • Emergency flap operation is not available
  40. How can the flaps be retracted after emergency extension?
    The flaps cannot be retracted until the aircraft is serviced by maintenance
  41. Which of the following is in both the FCP and RCP?
    None of the above are in both cockpits
  42. Describe the action required by both pilots to relinquish aircraft control with the intercom OUT.
    PF smoothly pushes the rudder pedals and the PNF shakes the stick
  43. Accomplish a G-awareness exercise on sorties that include maneuvers that may result in ___ or more Gs.
  44. G loading during the G-X should increase to approximately ______ Gs.
    four (4)
  45. For planning purposes, use approximately _____ - _____ knots minimum for a level to slightly descending turn in the G-awareness exercise
    200; 220
  46. When accomplishing the G-awarenes exercise, the G onset rate should be __________, allowing sufficient time to evaluate the effectiveness of your AGSM and determine your G tolerance.
    slow and smoot
Card Set