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  1. Fuel pressure supplied by high pressure fuel pump?
  2. Fuel pressure supplied by low pressure fuel pump?
  3. Over wing refueled full fuel load?
  4. SPR refueled full fuel load?
  5. Collector tank capacity?
  6. Normal wing tank capacity?
    530lbs ea.
  7. How much torque is the engine producing at 100% indicated torque?
  8. What is the max shaft horsepower?
  9. What is the basic empty weight and maximum takeoff gross weight?
    4900 lbs, 6500 lbs
  10. What is the oil system capacity?
    18.5 quarts
  11. When must the oil level be serviced?
    Within 30 minutes of engine shutdown. For most accurate readings, check 15-20 minutes after shutdown.
  12. What are normal oil pressure indications when the engine is not running?
    0-4 psi
  13. When will the amber OIL PX light illuminate?
    • IDLE: 15-40 psi
    • NORMAL: 40-90 psi for 10 seconds
  14. When will the red OIL PX light illuminate?
    • IDLE: <15 psi
    • OTHER: <40 psi
  15. When will both red and amber OIL PX lights illuminate?
    IDLE: 15-40 for >5 seconds
  16. What function does the reduction gearbox have?
    Reduces power turbine output (30,000 RPM) to propeller operating speed (2000 RPM)
  17. What is the diameter of the propeller?
    97 inches
  18. How much torque is the engine producing at 100% indicated torque?
    2900 ft-lbs
  19. What is the blade angle at the low pitch setting?
  20. What powers the PMU?
    32 VAC Permanent magnet alternator unless NP is below 40-50%
  21. When will the PMU abort an auto start attempt?
    ITT exceeds 940° C for 2 sec; 870° C for 4 sec; 840° C for 19 sec; N1 acceleration rate <50% of normal
  22. What happens when IOAT is 96 - 121° C?
    The PMU defaults to 121°C, IOAT and ITT data will be invalid, EDM FAIL will be displayed.
  23. What happens when IOAT is >121° C
    PMU will go offline, PMU FAIL annunciator will illuminate
  24. When does automatic fuel balancing occur?
    More than 20 lbs imbalance for >30 sec
  25. When does auto fuel balance system shut off?
    If fuel imbalance is not reduced to <30 lbs within 2 minutes
  26. amber PMU STATUS
    in flight: mismatch weight on wheels, w/not revert ground mode, MASTER CAUTION; Ground: a fault
  27. red PMU FAIL
  28. red CHIP
    metal in oil; MASTER WARNING
  29. amber CKPT ALT
    cockpit pressure > 19,000ft; MASTER CAUTION flashes
  30. red CKPT PX
    dif. pressure > 3.9-4.0psi; MASTER WARN flashes
  31. red FIRE
    engine temp exceeds limitations; MASTER WARN
  32. red FUEL PX
    fuel pressure <10psi
  33. amber L/R FUEL LO
    L/R wing tank < 110lbs
  34. amber FUEL BAL
    fuel imbalance > 30lbs.; fuel probe fail
  35. M FUEL BAL
    fuel balance switch not in AUTO position
    boost pump on
  37. amber HYDR FL LO
    Hydraulic fluid < 1qt; MASTER CAUTION light
  38. amber EHYD PX LO
    pressure in emergency accumulator < 2400psi +/-150; MASTER CAUTION flashes
  39. amber TAD FAIL
    trim aid device failure
  40. To what quantities do the fuel probes indicate?
    Outer: 445 ± 50 lbs; Mid: 308 ± 50 lbs; Inner: 20 lbs
  41. What are the components of the electrical system?
    28 VDC, 300 amp starter/generator; 24 VDC, 42 ampere-hour battery' 24 VDC, 5 ampere-hour auxiliary battery
  42. What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?
    5 quarts
  43. When does the normal hydraulic system pressure relief valve open?
    3250 to 3500 psi
  44. What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?
    3000 ± 120 psi
  45. What is the minimum normal hydraulic pressure to operate components?
    1800 psi
  46. What function does the check valve have?
    Prevents emergency system from bleeding into the main system
  47. What function does the hydraulic fuse have?
    Prevents emergency system from bleeding into the main system; 20-30 cubic inches (0.5 quarts) to leak at a rate of 0.25 GPM
  48. How much do the flaps extend for flaps TO and LDG?
    TO: 23°; LDG: 50°
  49. How much do the ailerons move?
    20° up; 11° down; ±6° trim
  50. How much can the elevators move?
    18° up; 16° down; 5.5° up trim; 22° down trim
  51. How much can the rudder move?
    L/R ±24°; Trim ±9°
  52. Under what situations should engine start be aborted?
    ITT rate of increase appears likely to exceed 1000° C; Normal N1 increase is halted; No rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start); BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence; PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence
  53. What are indications of engine fire on the ground?
    Primary are FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators;
  54. Under what conditions should the engine be shutdown on the ground?
    Engine Fire; Prop strike; Chip Light; Departing a prepared surface; Any other serious ground emergency
  55. What are indications of a complete engine failure immediately after takeoff?
    A total loss of power and a fairly rapid reduction in airspeed.
  56. What are initial indications of engine failure/flameout?
    Low of power and airspeed; Rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; Propeller movement towards feather due to loss of oil pressure
  57. At what percent does Torque being to indicate?
  58. What annunciators will illuminate after an engine failure?
    Initially, GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX; Followed by OBOGS FAI
  59. What should the initial reaction to any engine malfunction at low altitude be?
    Trade Airspeed for altitude; Zoom if above 150 KIAS, maintain level glide if below 150 KIAS
  60. What kind of pull should be initiated if above 150 KIAS and the engine fails?
    2G pull up to a 20° climb. Use 20 KIAS lead to initiate a 0 to +0.4 G pushover to capture glide airspeed
  61. How much altitude gain can be expected from 200 KIAS? 250 KIAS?
    200 KIAS: 600 to 900 ft ; 250 KIAS: 1170 to 1550 ft
  62. How much altitude loss can be expected with each airstart attempt?
    1200 ft total, 1350 to 1500 ft/min
  63. How long will it take before useful thrust can be developed after an airstart attempt?
    40 Seconds
  64. How long will it take before the propeller RPM unfeathers and accelerates to normal operating RPM?
    Approximately 20 seconds after N1 reaches 45%
  65. What is the airstart envelope?
    SL – 15,000 ft: 125-200 KIAS; 15,001 – 20,000 ft: 135-200 KIAS
  66. What are the indications of an engine rollback?
    Uncommanded reduction in power/thrust; Lower than expected fuel flow, uncommanded decrease in N1, high RITT on the AEDD
  67. How long do fluctuations in engine indications usually last during a prop sleeve touchdown?
    15-20 seconds
  68. What are initial indications of compressor stalls?
    Abnormal engine noise (bangs, backfires, engine sputtering); Increasing ITT; Decreasing N1 and torque; Fluctuating engine indications
  69. What are indications of PMU Failure?
    Simultaneous illumination of PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS; Step change in engine power
  70. How long will it take to drain the battery if starter is left in MANUAL?
    10 minutes
  71. How long will the generator and battery buses be powered?
    Until 16 volts
  72. When are flaps LDG landings performed?
    When landing distances are >=80% of runway length
  73. When are flaps TO landings performed?
    For full-stop landings with 10 knot or greater crosswind
  74. When are flaps UP landings performed?
    Full-stop landings with >20 knot crosswinds if landing distance is not a factor
  75. When should a breakout from inside downwind be performed?
    Aircraft in final turn and not in sight; Straight in inside 2 miles and not in sight; ELP inside low key and normal spacing cannot be maintained; Pattern spacing cannot be maintained within normal ground track; Not properly configured by the perch point
  76. How should approach speeds be changed with high weight?
    Above 700-800 lbs of fuel, approximately 3-5 knots above final turn and final airspeed.
  77. What is the airspeed to altitude relationship?
    10 knots airspeed can be traded for 100 feet of increased altitude
  78. How much altitude can be lost in a 360° turn?
    30° bank – 2,000 ft; 45° bank – 1,500 ft; 60° bank – 1,000 ft
  79. What is the expected glide ratio for a clean, feathered aircraft?
    2 miles per 1,000 ft (2:1) with 1,350 – 1,500 fpm descent rate
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