what do we have to do in order to avoid injury when lifting a heavy object, a radiographer should
bend at the knees and keep objects close to body as possible
T or F:
the patient must always be a part of the planning process and be given the opportunity to refuse a treatment or procedure
T
T or F:
a radiographer should push heavy objects rather than pull them
F
T or F:
A radiographer is not responsible for a patients belongings
F
T or F:
Always transfer patients across the shortest distance
T
During a patient transfer having the patient put their arms across their chest do what two things
reduce friction be reducing surface area
increase the patients feeling of stability
a position in which the the patients head is lower than that of the rest of the body that increases venous return is called
trendelenberg
A position used when a patients exhibits signs of respiratory distress is called
fowlers position
T or F:
immobilization devices must be padded
T
T or F:
Devices should always be put on tight to restrict movement
F
T or F:
If leg immobilizers are necessary, wrist immobilizers must also be used
T
T or F:
Immobilizers must be ordered by the physician in charge of the patients care
T
During early signs of skin breakdown, the blanching and feeling of coldness over pressure area is a sign of what condition
ischemia
the heat and redness that occur as a result of blood rushing into nourish the skin that follow is called _____
hyperemia
Name 3 of the 7 signs of impaired circulation or nerve compression from casted limb
skin discoloration
numbing
inability to move
state 3 ways that you as a student radiography can reduce radiation exposure to yourself
time shielding and distance
name the 3 factors associated with the increase of nosocomial infections
therapeutic regimen environmental equipment
name the four groups of microorganisms that produce disease
fungi
parasites & prions
viruses
bacteria
a pathogenic microorganism is one that causes what?
diseases
what is the organization that protects healthcare workers from work related injuries or illnesses is
OSHA (occupational safety & health Admin)
Name five potentially infectious substances for which standard precautions
blood csf seminal fluid saliva nasal secretions
the best mean for preventing the transmission of germs is
handwashing
the removal of pathogenic organisms through the use of water friction and soap and chemical disinfection is _____
medical asepsis
the 3 modes of transmission of diseases are _____
contact droplets airborne
What is used for patients with highly contagious diseases transmitted by contact or airborne routes
expanded or strict isolation
what is assault
threat of touching in an injurious way
if patient feels harmed he or she can file for assault
what is battery
touching a person without permission
it implies a willful act to harm or provoke or even the most harmful touch is prohibited if it has not been expressed by the patient
what is false imprisonment
intentional confinement without authorization by one who physically constricts a person using force
what is libel
written defamation of character
what is slander
oral defamation of character
what is malpractice
a lawsuit against a health care professional
what is the doctrine of res ipsa loquttur
if an injury happens that could not have occurred if there had no negligence
what is rescinding consent
cancelling treatment with verbal or in writing at any time
What are the two organizations of the radiologic technologists?
ASRT and ARRT
What is the JRCERT?
are a group of persons appointed by sponsoring organizations to oversee the accreditation process
What is the definition of a profession?
implies that an occupation requires extended training and education of its members who have skills and serve a specific social need
What members deal with the accreditation of certain schools?
JRCERT (Joint Review Committee Education in Radiologic Technology)
Explain the accreditation process:
Starts w/ application from program to JRCERT
then a self study must be taken place on the standards by accrediting agency
then a team of visitors are sent to the site to verify the info provided in the self study
the site visitors then send a report to acc. agency
Report is reviewed by agency staff and presented to the board accreditation status
How many credits are required for radiologic techs for continuing education?How many years
24 credits
per 2 years
What are ethics?
Ethics is defined as a set of moral principles that govern ones course of action
What are moral principles?
they are a set of standards that establish is right or wrong
What are bioethics?
it is a branch of ethics that was established because of the advanced technical methods of prolonging life
it pertains solely to the ethics in the field of the health care
What are the 2 parts of the "Code of Ethics"?
Explain both
Code of ethics - is intended to assist RT's and candidates in maintaing a high level of ethical conduct and in providing for the protection, safety and comfort to patients.
rules of ethics - they are mandatory and directive specific of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all RT's and candidates
What are the two types of torts and explain both?
Intentional tort = is a purposeful deed
committed with the intention of producing the consequences of the deed
unintentional tort = when a radiographer is
negligent in the performance of patient care and the patient is injured as a
result
Explain examples of intentional tort?
–Immobilizing a patient against
his or her will (false imprisonment)
–Falsely stating a patient has
AIDS (defamation of character)
–Causing extreme emotional
distress-resulting illness through outrages or shocking conduct
List examples of unintentional tort?
–Improper marking radiographic
images
–Omitting to apply gonadal shielding
–Handing the Radiologist the
incorrect syringe during a procedure with the incorrect medication
–Leaving a patient unattended with
bed rails down and having the patient fall off the gurney
What is the informed consent?
A consent is a contract wherein the patient voluntarily gives permission to perform a service
Many procedures performed
in the diagnostic imaging departments require special consent forms to be signed by the patient or parent/guardian
What is simple consent?
obtaining a patient’s permission to perform a procedure, without knowledge of that procedure.
What is express, implied, inadequate consent?
Express consent occurs when the patient does not stop the procedure from taking place.
Implied consent occurs in emergency
situations when it is not possible to obtain consent.
Inadequate consent – aka- Ignorant
consent. This occurs when the patient
has not been informed adequately to make a responsible decision
What was passed by the congress in 1996?
HIPPA - enacted to protect the privacy of patients health information
Since perfect health is almost nearly unachievable, what is health considered on a spectrum?
a continuum (which means there are different aspects of health)
what 4 categories are required for learning
cognitive, effective and psychomotor, didactic skills
what is subjective data in data collection
anything that the patient says "spoken words"
ex.patient might say "i had an xray, they gave me medicine in my vein that me itch all over"
what is objective data in data collecting
anything that the radiographer observes like hearing seeing reading on patients chart, feels or smells
what method requires all levels of critical thinking
data analysis
what concept requires all modes of thinking
planning and implementation
define culture
A shared system of beliefs, values and behavioral expectations that provide social structure in daily living.
habits and routines, ethnicity, customs and rituals
what 2 factors are a part of the radiographers assessment and plan of care?
cultural and ethnic diversity
what are the 4 elements of self concept
body image
role
identity
self esteem
what is self concept
how we see our selves (self acceptance & achivement and having a positive self concept is good)
what is self esteem?
our personal worth based on feedback from behavious in our life which is the goal of self acceptance
what is the nonverbal aspects of communication
all stimuli other than the spoken word involved in communication
what is paralanguage
has to do with the sounds of speed, rather than the content
what is a key factor in maintain a positive clinical experience
listening
what are all the phases of loss & grief and explain
p1 denial - experiences denial from knowledge of terminal illness, pt usually senses it before doc comes
p2 anger - pt is verified of illness, pt is angry, begins to lash out at family or HCW, feels an injustice, anger is therapeutic for patient, not to take personally on HCW
p3 bargaining - pt is a good patient, he/she follows medical advice becomes submissive, experience feelings of guilt and they may seek alternative treatments
p4 depression - patient accepts reality of the situation, begins to mourn, pt is often quite and submissive
Give support
p5 acceptance - loss of interest outside world, desire to discuss grief, can last a yr or 2, attempts rehab, deals with the suffering
HCW role = quite support relfective communication, be understanding
what is an advanced directive that is the oldest and is rquested at the time of the death
living will
usually happens when there are no more measures to prolong life and no chance of recovery
what is the DNR or No Code
do not resuscitate - means that no CPR (chest compressions, cardiac drugs, or placement of a breathing tube) will be performed
it is part of the legal document that staes no CPR or other life saving measures are implented if the need may arise
what is the DPOA
dual power of attorney is used when the patient authorizes another to carry out his/her wishes
what is the DNI and Full code
Do not intubate order means that chest compressions and cardiac drugs may be used, but no breathing tube will be placed
CPR (code blue)
what are the higher modes of thinking
and the lower
inquiry and creativity
recall and habit
what decubitus ulcers
are localized injuries to the skin and/or underlying tissue that usually occur over a bony prominence as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
what is tissue necrosis
death and destruction of tissue cells
what is an iatrogenic infection
what are nosocomial infections
A nosocomial infection that results from a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure
Infections acquired at the HOSPITAL or other medical care institutions during the course of care
what is community acquired infection
a person who enters the health care facility with an infection
what are the natural microorganisms in every humans body
flora
what is a colorless, minute one celled organism that contains bothe DNA and RNA
bacteria
what is microorganism needs oxygen to survive (aerobic)
bacteria
what are some diseases caused by bacteria
TB
Streptococcal Infections of the throat
Staphylococcal Infections
Salmonella Poisoning
Lyme Disease
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Tetanus
what are examples of fungi
mold and yeast
how does fungi reproduce
by budding (yeasts) or spores (molds) formation
what is a complex one celled microorganism that moves by flagella and cilia
parasites
what are helminths microorgansims and where do they live
parasitic worms
in the intestines
what is the smallest microorganism
viruses
what microorganism has either DNA or RNA but never both
viruses
how must a virus survive
must invade a host cell to live and reproduce
what are the five elements needed to transmit infection are
entrace to host
reservoir
infectious agent
mode of transmission
exit portal
list some common viral diseases
herpes
influenza
common cold
mumps
measles
hepatits
aids
what microorganism exists in all mammals brain cells and can be malformed due to disease or genetic predisposition
prions
what is a reservoir
list examples
where pathogens can live and multiple
human being
animal
plant
food
water
soil
what is an exit portal
list examples
microbes leave the reservoir through one or more exit areas or portals
human beings (nose mouth open wound urinary tract intestines)
in what stage must a patient reach of the disease before it is classified as AIDS
5th
what is called when a persons body that does not adequately defend itself against disease
so their body cannot do what ?
they are immunodepresses or immunocompromised
their body is unable to neutralize destroy or eliminate invading antigens from his or her body
what are antibodies produced by
b - lymphocytes
what type of virus is HIV
retrovirus - converts RNA to DNA when it enter the host cell
what do retroviruses have that increases their ability to destroy host cell (t4)
reverse transcriptase
which hepatitis virus is transmitted only through fecal oral transmission
hep A & E
what is surgical asepsis
Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or chemical process
patients with what disease carry resistant germs on their skin even when they dont have any wounds or broken skin
mRSA methicillin-resistant S. aureus
VRE vancomycin-resistant enterococci
what is the most important airborne (microbes spread on evaporated droplets suspended in air & inhaled) precautions
priv room neg. air pressure ventilation and mask
tb particulate air filter
mask for pt via trasnportation
what is colonization
the presence of microbes on skin without the symptoms of disease
what are expanded strict isolation precautions used for
