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What critical blood gas results indicate acute respiratory distress?
- pH < 7.2
- PaCO2 > 55 mmHg
- PaO2 < 60 mm Hg
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What are the recommended therapies for COPD - Asthma - Chronic Bronchitis?
- β2 selective sympathomimetics
- Anticholinergics
- ketamine (Ketalar®)
- MgSO4
- Steroids ** Late phase Rx/Hyper-Responsiveness prophylaxis
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What are the risk factors for PE?
- Smokers
- Oral contraceptives
- Sedentary
- Cancer
- Obesity
- Gravid
- Greenfield filter
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What is the hallmark presentation for PE?
- Acute respiratory distress
- SPO2 that doesn't respond to high flow O2
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Describe the physiology of pneumonia
Localized infection results in the accumulation of consolidated proteins in inflammatory factors
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Under what principle does a Volume Targeted ventilator function?
Ventilator delivers a pre-set volume when triggered, regardless of airway pressures. AKA “volume limited”
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Under what principle does a Pressure Targeted ventilator function?
Ventilator delivers gas when triggered until a preset pressure is reached. AKA “pressure limited"
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What are the two ventilator targeting/limiting modes?
Pressure & Volume
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How does Controlled Mandatory Ventilation work?
Ventilator delivers a preset Vt or PIP @ a preset rate. Pt cannot initiate breaths. May lead to pt apprehension & air hunger in awake pt.
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How does Assist Control ventilation work?
- Ventilator delivers a preset Vt or PIP w/every breath. Pt is able to trigger breaths, but a backup rate is set in the event the patient breathes below the set rate.
- May be poorly tolerated in awake pts d/t the asynchrony of pt & machine cycle length
- May be associated w/respiratory alkalosis
- May worsen air trapping in COPD pts
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How does Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (IMV) work?
IMV Combines a preset # of breaths w/a preset Vt or PIP w/the capability of intermittent pt generated breaths.
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How does Synchronized IMV work?
- Ventilator senses the start of a pt breath. The mandatory breath is delivered in synchrony w/the pt’s effort
- Allows for various modes of support from complete support to spontaneous breathing
- Risks: Hyperventilation, Respiratory alkalosis & air trapping COPD pts
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Which ventilation mode is generally considered the safest?
Synchronized IMV (SIMV)
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What is the formula for determining Minute Volume?
Minute Volume (Ve) = Vt x f
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What is the normal range for Ve in an adult?
4 - 8 L/min
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What is the normal tidal volume (Vt) for an adult?
6 - 10 mL/kg
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What is the normal rate (f) for an adult?
8 - 20/min
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What is the normal I:E ratio for an adult?
1:2 or 1:3
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What is the normal FiO2 for an adult?
0.21 - 1.0
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What is the normal PPLAT for an adult?
< 30
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What is the mnemonic for troubleshooting High Pressure alarms?
- S – suction
- C – connections
- O – obstructions
- P – pneumothorax
- E – ETT dislodgement or displacement
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How quickly will a tension develop in the vented patient who develops a pneumothorax with the vent in High Pressure Alarm?
1 to 2 ventilations
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Once identified, what is the 1st maneuver to treat the vented pt that develops a pneumothorax?
D/C from vent
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What do PIP & PPLAT alarms prompt you to investigate?
- PIP Alarms: Think Airway problem
- PPLAT Alarms: Think Lung problem
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What do you ☑ when you have a ↓ Pressure Alarm?
- O2 delivery/supply system
- All connections to pt
- Leaks in vent circuit
- All settings
- Evaluate for ETT dislodgement/extubation
- ↓ ETCO2 or loss of waveform
- ↓ SPO2
- Hypovolemia (Δ space available for lung expansion: ↑ Space ⇝ ↑ Volume ⇝ ↓ Pressure in Container [Lungs]) [Requires significant ↓ in circulating volume]
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What should you ☑ when you have a low sat alarm?
- Consider SaO2 vs. SpO2 issues (probe placement)
- Appropriate Vt set?
- Appropriate f (rate)?
- Appropriate inspiratory time?
- ETT placement
- Consider PEEP
- Suctioning
- Pneumo?
- PE?
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What effect does Methemaglobinemia (MetHgb) have on SPO2 readings?
- “SPO2 reads low when it’s high & high when it’s low”
- With MetHgb > 40% will direct the SPO2 to 85%
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The acutely deteriorating respiratory pt will commonly exhibit:
PaCO2 > 55 mmHg
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Normal minute volume should be
4-8 L/min
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What does a PaCO2 of > 55 mmHg indicate?
Ventilatory failure w/retention of CO2
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What 3 criteria should we use to guide our decision to intubate?
- Current Airway Patency
- Oxygenation or ventilation failure
- Expected clinical outcome
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What mnemonic is used to identify a Difficult Airway & what does it stand for?
- LEMON
- L – Look
- E – Evaluate 3-3-2-1
- M – Mallampatti
- O – Obstructions
- N – Neck mobility
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Describe the Mallampati Classification Scores
- Class I: Full visibility of the Pharyngeal arches, Tonsillar pillars, Soft palate & Uvula
- Class II: Visibility of the Soft palate & Part of the pendent uvula
- Class III: Visibility of the Soft palate & only the base of the uvula
- Class IV: Visibility of only the hard palate

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Describe the 3-3-2-1 airway evaluation
- 3 fingers upright into pts mouth
- 3 fingers fit below chin btn mandible and laryngeal cartilage
- 2 fingers btn larynx & hyoid bone
- 1 finger btn upper & lower jaws after displacing mandible forward

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Describe the Difficult Airway Algorithm
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What is the ideal agent for awake technique?
- Etomidate
- ~ 96% of pts retain their respiratory drive when properly dosed
- Short acting
- Risks: Myoclonus – Usually self relieving
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What makes an RSI candidate?
- Requires sedation
- Expect to be able to intubate
- Expect to be able to ventilate
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What is the purpose of RSI?
To prevent aspiration
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What are the 7 P's of the RSI process?
- Preparation - Lemon Soda
- Pre-oxygenation - 5 min vs accelerated, BVM vs mask
- Premedication - Load & wait 3 min
- Paralysis w/Induction - Induction followed immediately by NMBA
- Protection & positioning - Sellick’s & proper alignment
- Placement & proofing of ETT - Tube sizes, 1°
- & 2° verification
- Post-intubation management - Tube restraints, Sedation &/or paralysis
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Sum up the Airway Algorithms in 2 questions
- 1: Is the pt unconscious/unresponsive/near death?
- 2: Is this a Difficult Airway
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What is the dose & the indications for use of Lidocaine in airway procedures?
- 1-1½ mg/kg
- Tight heads & Tight lungs
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What is the dose & indication for use of Fentanyl in airway procedures?
- 1-3 υ/kg
- Attenuation of stress/autonomic response to noxious stimuli
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What is the dose & indications for the use of Atropine in airway procedures?
- 0.5-1.0 mg
- Dry up saliva caused by Ketamine
- Treat bradycardia caused by SUX - esp Peds
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What is the induction dose for etomidate?
0.3 mg/kg
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What are the non-barbituate induction agents?
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What is the induction dose for ketamine?
0.5-2.0 mg/kg
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What is the induction dose for midazolam and what is the primary risk with it's use?
- 0.05-0.15 mg/kg
- Profound hypotension
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What is the induction dose for Fentanyl?
15-75 micrograms/kg
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What is the paralytic dose for succinylcholine?
- Adult: 0.5-1.5 mg/kg
- Child: 2 mg/kg
- Infant: 3 mg/kg
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What is the onset & duration of action for succinylcholine when used as a paralytic?
- Onset: 30-60 sec
- DOA: 3-4 min (80%), 9-13 min (95%)
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What are the side effects of succinylcholine when used as a paralytic?
- CV: Bradyarrhythmias, VF/VT (problematic w/2nd bolus & K+ disorders)
- K+ shifts (0.5 mEq/L w/typical ETT dosing), much higher in Ach disorders
- NEURO: ↑ ICP, ↑ IOP & ↑ IGP (Attenuate well w/defasciculating premed)
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What is the Dose for vecuronium [VEC] (Norcuron)?
0.1 mg/kg
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What is the Onset for vecuronium [VEC] (Norcuron)?
2.4 min
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What is the Duration Of Action for vecuronium [VEC] (Norcuron)?
44 min
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What is the Dose for rocuronium [ROC] (Zemuron)?
0.6-1.2 mg/kg
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What is the Onset for rocuronium [ROC] (Zemuron)?
60-90 sec
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What is the Duration of Action for rocuronium [ROC] (Zemuron)?
36-73 min
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Describe the concept of a "Sterile Cockpit"
No conversations take place on the flight deck that are not related to the safe operation of the aircraft.
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When should "Sterile Cockpit" guidelines be observed?
Per FAA during any "Critical Phase of Flight"
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Describe "Critical Phase of Flight"
All flight phases except straight, level, cruise flight
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When should a Post Accident Incident Policy be implemented?
A POST ACCIDENT INCIDENT POLICY (PAIP) should be implemented 15 minutes after an aircraft fails to give a position report or is overdue to arrive.
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What is the minimum staffing requirements for accreditation at the ALS level:
- 2 personnel attending to the pt
- at least 1 is EMT-P
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What is the minimum staffing requirements for accreditation at the Critical Care Level level:
- 2 personnel attending to the pt
- Dual medic vs Medic/RN
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What is the minimum staffing requirements for accreditation at the Specialty Transport level:
- 2 personnel attending to the pt
- Specialty Care personnel must be accompanied by at least 1 regularly scheduled Air Medical personnel
- & all personnel must have basic safety orientation
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What is the Minimum Crew training requirement?
- Didactic & clinical portions specific & appropriate for the mission statement & scope of care of the medical transport service
- Includes Stress Recognition & Managment
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How many hours and what type should pilots have?
2000 hrs rotorcraft hrs w/1000 hrs as PIC & 100 hrs as PIC @ night
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Pilot initial training should include
- Terrain & Weather
- Orientation to Hospital
- Infection Control
- Pt loading & unloading
- Medical systems on aircraft
- CRM: Crew Resource Management
- EMS/Public Service Agencies
- Instrument Meteorologic Conditions (IMC) Recovery procedures by reference to instruments or IFR currency
- 5 hrs area orientation w/2 hrs @ night as PIC prior to EMS missions
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Discuss Uniforms & Protective Equipment recommendations
- Protective clothing & dress codes pertinent to mission profile
- Boots or sturdy footwear
- Reflective material at night
- Flame retardant clothing
- How does your flight suit fit?
- ¼” between your flight suit & you
- All cotton natural fibers beneath flight suit
- Nomex is not required, retardant quality is
- Environment appropriate
- Hearing protection
- Helmets?
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What safety issues does CAMTS address in their recommendations?
- Refueling Policies
- Oxygen Delivery
- Latex Allergies
- Weather minimums
- Cellular phones
- Night Vision Goggles
- Safety committee
- Minimum medical equipment
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What are the CAMTS recommended VFR weather minimums?
- Local:
- Day 500' Ceiling x 1 mile visibility
- Night: 800' Ceiling x 2 miles visibility
- Cross Country
- Day 1000' Ceiling x 1 mile visibility
- Night 1000' Ceiling x 3 miles visibility
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What is the # 1 cause of aeromedical crashes?
Pushing weather (esp @ night)
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What does VMC stand for?
Visual Meteorological Conditions: You can visually identify where the sky and the ground meet
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What does IMC stand for?
Instrument Meteorological Conditions: You cannot visually identify where the sky and the ground meet
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What does VFR stand for?
Visual Flight Rules: Rules for flight during VMC
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What does IFR stand for?
Instrument Flight Rules: Rules for flight during IMC
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What are the in-flight emergency procedures?
- Lay Patient Flat
- Assure Patient Straps Secure
- Turn Off O2
- Secure Equipment
- Confirm your belts are secure
- Helmet visor down
- Assume crash positions
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What are the Crash/Post Crash Procedures?
- Emergency Transmit Freq 121.5
- ELT activation occurs around 4 g
- If the pilot is incapacitated on termination of movement:
- Disengage the throttle
- Disengage the fuel
- Disengage the battery
- Don’t exit the aircraft until movement stops
- Exit and meet crew members @ 12o’clock
- Secure shelter, fire, then water & finally food
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What is required for safe night scene landings?
Communications w/Ground personnel
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What are recommended LZ sizes?
- Day: 75' x 75'
- Night: 100' x 100'
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