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define pathogen, infection, and disease
- pathogen: micro-org that has potential to cause disease.
- infection: invasion and prolif. of pathogenic microorganisms
- Disease: infection causes damage to host tissues or function.
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What are fomites?
any inanimate object that carries infection (e.g. cell phone)
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What is the difference b/n empiric and specific antibiotic therapy?
empiric: given before you know what is causing the disease, usually broad spectrum
specific: given when the sensitivity and identity of the offending organism are known. Usually narrower spectrum.
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Why do Abx levels testing
- 1) therapeutic index is low: (tmt conc/toxic conc)
- 2) if there is worry about Abx harming organ systems
- 3) genetic hypersensitivity to drug exists
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What are the 4 cardinal manifestation of infection?
- 1) fever
- 2) leukocytosis (WBC greater than 10 or 11)
- 3) local signs and symptoms
- 4) systemic signs and symptoms
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Why would you treat fever?
- 1) patient comfort
- 2) harmful secondary effects
- -febrile conulsions
- -hypermetabolism
- -encephalopathy
- -hypercatabolic state
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why would you NOT treat fever?
- 1) fever enhances immune activity: stumlates lymphocytes, and enhances their transformation.
- 2) complicates interpretation of: patient's illness, response to therapy
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What are the three R's in specimen collection
- The right specimen: One that should have the pathogen (e.g. CSF for neurological symptoms)
- The Right time: while patient is still symptomatic and before Abx
- The Right way: e.g. if sterile, KEEP it sterile from your own flora
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Risk factors for MRSA
- -hospitalizations: tubes, contact, multiple Abx
- -community: athletes, crowded, aboriginal, tattoos, IVDU
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VRE risk factors
-hospitalization: tubes, multiple Abx, immunosuppression
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List some alpha and beta hemolytic strep
- alpha: viridans, s. pneumoniae
- beta: Group A - S. pyogenes, Group B - S agalactial
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List some common sites for anaerobic infection
- dental infections/abscesses
- abscesses of resp, abdo, pelvic origin
- CNS abscesses
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Difference in cell wall between GNB and GPB
- GNB walls have:
- -less rigid walls
- -thinner peptidoglycan layer
- -inner and outer membrane
- -no teichoic acid
- -LOTS of lipopolysaccharide (lipid A is an endotoxin)
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What are some of the complications due to the release of LPS endotoxin in GNB?
- fever
- leukopenia
- hypotension
- DIC
- others
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Answer the following about enterbacteraceae:
1)large gram _____ rods
2) ______ anaerobes
3) grow in presence of _____
4) All ferment ______+/- other carbs
- 1) negative
- 2) facultative
- 3) bile acids
- 4) glucose
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How does MacConkey media work?
- 1) it is selective: contains crystal violet and bile acids which inhibit the growth of gram +ve bacteria
- 2) it is differential: contains a pH indicator; lactose fermenters make acid turning the media red; otherwise it stays clear
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Answer the following about non-fermentive GNB
1) _______ GN rods
2) ______ aerobes
3) non _____ fermenters
4) Many are ______ to lots of Abx
5) some are ______ positive (vs. enterobactereceae)
6) Important ______ infections
- 1) Skinny
- 2) Obligate
- 3) lactose
- 4) resistant
- 5) oxidase
- 6) nosocomial
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What are the 3 L's for psuedomonas
- Landscape: GNB, lactose non-fermenter, oxidase positive, found in hospitals (ventilators), burn patients,
- Landmarks: lung infections in cystic fibrosis, bacteremia in neutropenic patients
- Landmines: resistant to most Abx except gentamycin and a few others.
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The 3 L's for Stenotrophomonas.
- Landscape: GNB, non-fermenter, oxidase negative
- Landmarks: treat with Septra
- Land mines: resistant to most Abx
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Fill in the blanks regarding the HACEK organism:
1) Normal flora of __________
2) _________ is an important risk factor in HACEK
3) most commonly implicated in ________
- 1) Upper resp tract
- 2) periodontal disease
- 3) culture negative endocarditis
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Describe the life cycle of a virus
- 1) adsorption: attach to host cell
- 2) penetration/uncoating: virus enters host cell and shoots its nucleic acid inside
- 3) gene expression: viral genes expressed to make more viruses in hijacked cell
- 4) Assembly: new intact viruses inside cell
- 5) Release: virus particles exit host cell
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4 possible outcomes of viral infection
- 1) lytic (acute) infection
- 2) persistant (chronic) infection
- 3) latent infection
- 4) host cell transformation
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What are 5 reasons that viruses are so hard to treat?
- 1) viral latency in recurrent infection
- 2) They are inside of cells
- 3) They use the cell's machinery to replicate
- 4) They display host antigens on exterior
- 5) Rapid mutation with rapid replication
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What are the three categories of AV agents?
- 1) Virucidal: directly inactivate intact viruses
- 2) Immunomodulatory: augment or modify host response to virus
- 3) Direct Acting: inihibit viral replication on a cellular level
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What are the 5 indications for IFN-alpha therapy
- 1) HBV chronic
- 2) HCV chronic
- 3) HPV infection
- 4) HIV?
- 5) non-infectious: ITP, some leukemias
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6 classes of HIV antiretrovirals avail
- 1) NRTIs (nucleotide/side analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor)
- 2) non-NRTI's
- 3) protease inhibitors
- 4) fusion inhibitors
- 5) entry inhibitors
- 6) Integrase inhibitors
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How does AmpB work?
binds to ergosterol on the fungal cell membrane and causes holes
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When should you use lipid AmpB?
- 1) refractory to conventional AmpB
- 2) patient intolerant to AmpB
- 3) renal dysfunction
- 4) selected difficult to treat pathologies
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what is the first line treatment for candidiasis?
fluconazole
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First line treatment in invasive aspergilliosis
Voriconazole
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4 things that are true of exotoxins but not endotoxins
- 1) must be released from cells to have toxic effects
- 2) require specific receptors
- 3) small doses are lethal
- 4) most act remotely from the site of infection
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6 modes of action for exotoxins
- 1) pore formation
- 2) alteration of cytoskeleton
- 3) inhibition of protein synthesis
- 4) activate second messenger pathways
- 5) proteases
- 6) activate immune response (superantigen)
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How does botulism work?
- 1) starts with cranial nerve symptoms and then descending paralysis
- 2) floppy people
- 3) Affects the SNARE proteins that are responsible for the release of ACh
- 4) irreversibly bound, need to grow new nerve terminals
- 5) most potent toxin known to man
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How does tetanus work?
- 1) muscle rigidity and spasms
- 2) blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (e.g. GABA)
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How does Diptheria work?
- 1) terminates protein synthesis
- 2) toxicity is conferred by a bacteriophage (need this)
- 3) causes tissue destruction (remember psuedomembrane)
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How does bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) work?
- 1) there are multiple toxins at work, complicated
- 2) basically attacks the mucociliary escalator
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How does cholera work?
- 1) volume depleted because of the profuse watery diarrhea
- 2) It affects the secondary messenger, causes Cl to be shunted out of the cell, the Na and H2O follow
- 3) requires bacteriophage
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What are the features of untreated leprosy (lepromatous vs tuberculoid)
- Lepromatous provides little or no CMI response.
- Tuberculoid produces a vigorous CMI response.

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What is the treatment of active TB?
- They are RIPE for treatment:
- R: Rifampin
- I: Isoniazid
- P: Pyrazinamide
- E: Ethambutamol
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What are the 3 objectives in treating TB?
- 1) rapid killing of TB bacilli (reduce mortality, morbidity, contagousness)
- 2) prevent the emergence or existence of drug resistence
- 3) Prevent relapse after therapy and achieve cure
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what is the difference between fever and hyperthermia?
fever - the setpoint of body temp has been altered
hyperthermia - you go above the setpoint of the body
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What are the 4 categories of fever of unknown origin? Details. temperature
Temp for all of these is >38.3
Classical FUO: >3 wks, or at least 3 outpatient visits, or 3 days in hospital
Nosocomial FUO: 3 day of investigation with 2 days of cultures
neutropenic FUO: same as nosocomial with neutrophil count <500/ml
HIV-associated FUO: same as nosocomial with HIV, with > 4weeks duration outpatients or >3dys inpatient
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What are the 5 main etologic causes of FUO in order of prevalence?
- -Infectious
- -neoplastic causes
- -connective tissue diseases (SLE, RA, etc)
- -miscellaneous (drugs, etc)
- -no diagnosis
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What are the 4 cancers that commonly present with fever (remember the 4H)
- -hematologic
- -hypernephroma: renal cell ca
- -hepatic:
- -head: brain
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What are some peripheral signs of endocarditis (6)?
- Roth spots: small ovoid hemorrhagic rings in retina
- Janeway lesions: small painless microemboli on the palms or soles
- Osler's nodes: painful, on thenar eminance
- clubbing
- splinter hemorrhages
- splenomegaly
- petechial rashes
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what is the most common cause of native valve endocarditis?
viridians group strep
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What is the most common cause of prothetic valve endocarditis?
- CONS (late)
- S. Aureus (within first 12 months)
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What is the hallmark of bacterial endocarditis?
continuous bacteremia
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What are the clinical features of infectious endocarditis (recall the FROM JANE mnemonic)
- Fever
- Roth's spots
- Osler's nodes
- Murmur
- Janeway lesions
- Anemia
- Nail bed hemorrhages (aka. splinter hemorrhages)
- Emboli
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Out of all the GI parasites, which is the one that can make you the sickest?
Entamoeba histolytica - because it can cause symptoms outside of the gut
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What three major pathological findings do you find in entamoeba histolytica?
- large flask-shaped ulcers in in the large intestine
- liver abscesses
- lung abscesses
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What is the treatment for entamoeba histolytica (invasive disease and for asymptomatic cyst passers) and giardia lambia?
- invasive: metronidazole
- asymptomatic: iodoquinol (need a compounding pharmacy)
giardia: metronidazole
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What are the three pathological flagellates?
- Giardia lamblia
- dientamoeba fragilis
- trichomonas vaginalis
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What is the crucial point to know about D. fragilis?
they can parasitize helminth eggs
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What are the three critical concepts in helminth infections
-worm burden: number of ADULT parasites in host
-autoinfection: completes their whole lifecycle in the host (pinworm and strongyloides only)
-systemic migration: eosinophilia, rashes, dyspnea
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What are the two P's in helminth stool examination
- Preservative: submit in the correct vial
- Provide clinical justification to justify microscopy
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What are the Sx you see with high worm burden?
- GI: abdo discomfort, bowel obstruction, +-diarrhea
- Diet: malnutrition, hypoproteinemia(adema, ascites)
- Mental: decreased IQ, cognitive impairment
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What are the 5 parameters of the Child-pugh classification of cirrhosis?
Bili, albimin, INR, ascites, ecephalopathy
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What tests would you order with asymptomatic patients with elevated liver transaminases
- Hep B surface antigen
- Hep C antibodies
- Anti smooth muscle, antinuclear Abs
- Copper studies
- Ferritin
- alpha1 AT phenotype
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What are the 4 most common respiratory viruses?
PAIR
- Paraflu
- Adeno
- Influenza (flu)
- RSV
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How can you differentiate RSV and paraflu?
- RSV: bronchiolitis, pneumonia > croup, URI
- paraflu: croup, laryngitis, URI > bronchiolitis, pneumonia
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what is the incubation time for the PAIRs viruses, enterovirus, hantavirus?
- Paraflu: 2.5 days
- Adeno: 5.5 days
- Influenza: 1.5 d (A), 0.5 d (B)
- RSV: 4.5 days
- entero: 3-6 days
- hanta: usually 2-4 weeks
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What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? how does a shift happen
drift: point mutations in H or N, allows to re-infection every year
shift: Completely different H and N, no immunity at all, causes pandemics. Animal and human virus combine in pig cell to make a new virus.
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What are the "common cold" viruses?
corona viruses, rhinovirus
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How would you treat influenza and adeno virus? What about the rest of the rest of the resp viruses?
Influenza: neuramidase inhibitor for A or B (osetamvir, zanamivir), vaccine (2 A's and a B) for prophylaxis
Adeno: Cidofovir only in immunocompromised patients
The rest of them have no effective clinical treatment
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What are the three stages of bordella pertussis (whooping cough)
- 1-2 weeks of cold symptoms
- 2-4 weeks of paroxysmal cough (+- the "whoop")
- Convalesce for 1-2 weeks: slow recovery with chance of rebound cough
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What are the three major bacterial causes of acute otitis media? 4 viral causes?
bacterial: pneumoniae>H. flu>>M. Catarrhalis
viral: PAIR (paraflu, adeno, influenza, RSV)
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What bugs (bacteria, viral, fungal) cause pharyngitis
- Bacterial: Group A strep, gonorrhea
- Viral: rhinovirus + PAIRs viruses + others
- Fingal: Candida albicans
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What are the usual bugs involved in ludwig's angina?
Gp A strep, viridins (alpha) strep, oral anaerobes
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List the 4 fastidious GNB
- legionella
- HACEK
- borditella
- hemophilias
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4 cardiac complications of endocarditis?
- 1) destruction of valve leading to free regurg
- 2) CHF
- 3) heart block
- 4) pericarditis
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When should you treat B. hominis?
- 1) patient is symptomatic
- 2) no other parasites identified
- 3) lots of them seen in stool
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Describe what a positive test for HBsAg, HBsAb, HBcIgM, and HBcIgG
- HBsAg: infection, either chronic or active
- HBsAb: immune, either through a past resolved infection or a vaccine
- HBcIgM: acute infection
- HBcIgG: chronic infection or immunity due to past resolved infection
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How does the CURB-65 pneumonia severity index work?
- Confusion - 1 point
- Urea > 7 mmol - 1 point
- RR > 30 beats per min - 1 point
- Blood pressure low - <90 sys., <60 dia - 1 pt
- 65 or older - 1point
- 0-1: treat as outpatient
- 2: consider hosp.
- 3-5 consider ICU
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Name the top 3 pathogens for both CAP and HAP
- CAP: S. pneumoniae, Mycoplasma, Chlamydophile
- HAP: enteric GN rods (e.g. e. coli), psuedomonas, S. aureus
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