2W051O Vol 2

  1. What is a requirement for military explosives?
    Raw materials must be cheap
  2. Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce...
  3. The rate of transformation for high explosives is between...
    3,200 and 28,000 feet per second
  4. The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called
  5. What are the detonation products?
    Heat, light, gases, and pressure
  6. How do we classify explosive train primers?
    By the way they are initiated
  7. How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
    Increase standoff distance
  8. For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?
    To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object
  9. The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and...
  10. Name two types of effects for signals
    Light and smoke
  11. What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN-MK13 signal?
    smoke and flare
  12. How is the A/P25S-5A distress signal kit ignited?
    percussion primer
  13. How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
    50,000 candlepower
  14. What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?
    Flash, illumination, and a whistling sound
  15. What is the LARGEST caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?
    Caliber 0.50
  16. What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?
  17. What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?
    The wad can cause injury
  18. What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?
    Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant
  19. Name three classifications of Air Force grenades.
    Service, practice, and training
  20. What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?
    composition B
  21. What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
    Black powder
  22. Which chemical filler is used in the AN-M8 smoke grenade?
  23. Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"?
  24. How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?
    250 meters
  25. How much force is required to unction the M14 anti-personnel mine?
    20-35 pounds
  26. What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?
  27. What color is the most common for military safety fuze?
  28. What device is used to initiate time fuse
    M60 igniter
  29. What substance is the M112 demo block made of?
    Composition C-4
  30. The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and...
  31. Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?
  32. In an electronically timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?
    Electric charging assembly
  33. The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers?
    Cotter Pins
  34. How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuze?
    Changing the delay element
  35. What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
  36. Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed?
    The tail fuze well
  37. The FMU-54-series tail fuzes are used in...
    MK80-series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder
  38. With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire?
    Battery-firing device
  39. How can you tell when an FMU-124A/B fuze is armed?
    The safety pin is removed and the release shaft is extended
  40. What setting causes the FMU-139A/B fuze to abort and not arm?
    "LOW-DRAG ARM TIME" knob set to the "X" position
  41. What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze?
    FZU-48/B initiator
  42. What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-143 series fuze?
    FZU-32 series fuze initiator
  43. Where are proximity sensors/fuzes installed on a bomb?
  44. Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)-64/B, SUU-65/B, and SUU-66/B dispensers?
  45. What does HOF stand for on the FZU-39/B proximity sensor?
    Height of function
  46. Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting built into the fuze at the time of manufacture?
  47. What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?
    Adapter booster
  48. Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?
  49. What air inflatable retarder (AIR) is used on the MK84 bomb?
  50. Which bomb is NOT classified as a penetrator
  51. What type of bomb is the BLU-113?
    4,000 pound penetrator bomb
  52. What bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU-28CB?
  53. What bomb is filled with a thermobaric explosive?
  54. What is the M129 bomb used for?
    Deliver propaganda leaflets used to persuade the enemy to surrender
  55. What suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU-5/B utilize?
  56. The BLU-126/B is identical to the...
    MK82, 2,000-pound bomb
  57. What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU-126/B
    27 pounds
  58. What is the weight of the BDU-33 series practice bomb?
    25 pounds
  59. What is the weight of the BDU-48 series practice bomb?
    10 pounds
  60. The BDU-48/B resembles the ballistics of the...
    MK82 high-drag munition
  61. Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU-87 cluster bomb?
    BLU-97 bomblets
  62. The MAJOR physical difference between the CBU-87/B and the CBU-89/B cluster bombs is the...
    CBU-89/B does not have canted fins
  63. How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU-89/B cluster bomb at one time?
  64. Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU-97 cluster bomb use?
  65. Against what types of targets is the CBU-97/B PRIMARILY used?
  66. The CBU-103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit (CBU)?
  67. The cluster bomb unit (CBU)-89A/B with a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit is converted to a...
  68. How do we classify 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition?
    According to its purpose
  69. Which part of the target practice 20 millimeter (mm) round is inert?
  70. What is one significant difference in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition compared to other cannon ammunition?
    The electrically fired primer
  71. What M505-series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?
    Fuze is bore safe
  72. The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the...
  73. What will NOT cause the electric primer in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition to be fired accidentally?
    Proper handling
  74. What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?
  75. When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is BULK-PACKED, how may rounds you expect to find in a CNU-405 container?
    80 or 100
  76. What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?
    lock ring
  77. What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?
    Familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system
  78. What material is the 30 millimeter (mm) cartridge case made of?
  79. What fuze is used in 30 (mm) high-explosive incendiary ammunition?
  80. How many lot number can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition?
  81. Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round
    Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze
  82. What is the total number of rounds the MK1 ammunition box can hold?
  83. What do we mean when we say the 105 millimeter (mm) is "fixed" ammunition?
    The propellant charge is not adjustable
  84. What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) high-explosive round?
    comp B
  85. Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation PGU-45/B projectile produce?
  86. What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU-160/B fuze to optimize lethality?
  87. What are the components of the 105 millimeter (mm) round?
    Cartridge case, propellant charge, primer, projectile, and fuze
  88. What MAJOR aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?
    All major tactical, bomber and cargo aircraft
  89. Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU-7/B flare?
  90. What does the SD-206 infrared flare do?
    Provides smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes
  91. Which component is part of the ALE-50 series towed decoy system?
    Launch controller
  92. Which impulse cartridge does the RR-170 chaff cartridge use?
  93. The LUU-2 series aircraft flare produces
    Two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes
  94. What output does the LUU-5/B target marker produce?
    Green light
  95. What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU-25E/A dispenser?
    ARD 863-1
  96. The gas pressure produced by the impulse in a SUU-25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately...
    65 feet per second
  97. What are initiators designed to do?
    Supply gas pressure to operate other cartridge-activated devices
  98. What are catapults used for?
    Ejecting a seat and crew member safely from an aircraft
  99. What are removers designed to do?
    Eject aircraft canopy
  100. What are the two types of impulse cartridges?
    Explosive and non-explosive
Card Set
2W051O Vol 2
2W051O Vol 2