AOOCP Chapter 3

  1. Who has delegated authority to CNO to issue waivers, exemptions and event waivers when necessary?
    The Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
  2. True or False, Shall, Will and Must are advisory requirements.
    Advisory requirements are those in which “may” or “should” are used.
  3. What are the six types of live ammunition that may be used for loading drills?
    • 1. Aircraft gun ammunition.
    • 2. High explosive-loaded all-up round (AUR) bombs, such as general purpose (GP) bombs, (GBUs) and QUICKSTRIKE.
    • 3. Rockets and rocket launchers with installed rockets.
    • 4. Guided missiles and torpedoes.
    • 5. Aircraft pyrotechnics.
    • 6. Expendable countermeasures.
  4. What types of ammunition may be used for loading drills in port?
    • 1. drill ammunition
    • 2. dummy rockets
    • 3. inert missiles
  5. The responsibility for safety during a ammunition pier side transfer operations rest with what activity?
    The Captain of the Port (COTP)
  6. Cranes, hoists, and cargo booms are all what type of equipment?
  7. What are the compatibility requirements when mixed ammunition is packed together for transfer to a shore activity?
    As stated on the NAVSEA SW020-AC-SAF-010
  8. When a magazine does not comply with the design requirements of NAVSEA OP 4 who would you report the discrepancy to?
  9. True of False.  Ammunition and explosives may be mixed with dissimilar compatibility group, or materials, or items that present positive hazards when transferring to a shore activity
  10. What office prepares the Ordnance Load Plan?
    Strike Operations        

    3-2    Sheet 10
  11. Who deals with aircraft handling procedures?
    Plane Captains
  12. Who takes care of shipboard maintenance procedures?
    Maintenance Personnel
  13. Who takes care of launching signals and procedures?
    Flight Crew
  14. Who takes care shipboard weapons handling and procedures?
    Ordnance Personnel
  15. Who is responsible for all pre-deployment training?
    The Carrier Air Wing (CVW) Commander
  16. Weapons that have not been subjected to attempts to fire or drop and return to the ship are considered?
  17. True or false. Simultaneous fueling, loading, and downloading of weapons, preloaded MERs/TERs, and installation of fuzes and rearming wires is authorized.
  18. When the weapons loaded placard/sign required by the individual aircraft stores/weapons loading manual checklist is in place, what maintenance or servicing may be accomplished?
    The maintenance or servicing of loaded aircraft which requires application of electrical power is limited to:

    • 1. Refueling.
    • 2. Replacement and checkout of communication and navigation equipment.
    • 3. Replacement and checkout of engine performance and flight instruments.
    • 4. Engine turn-up for checkout.
    • 5. Flight control and hydraulic system checks.
  19. Who announces over the flight-deck announcing system when the approaching aircraft has hung or unexpended ordnance?
    The Air Officer
  20. Who formalizes the entry paths for each type aircraft to assure the least hazard to the arming crew members?
    CVW Ordnance Officer
  21. True or false. Maintenance requiring the application of electrical power to the armament or weapons release and control circuitry shall not be performed while weapons are loaded on the aircraft.
  22. Who is responsible for maintaining an alert watch to detect any condition that might jeopardize the security of aircraft or equipment?
    When not conducting flight operations, the Integrity Watch Officer (IWO) or the designated flight/hangar deck Supervisor
  23. What is the importance of developing and promulgating standardized procedures that facilitate the safe and efficient handling of aviation ordnance aboard ships?
    Ensuring everyone is operating in the same manner to minimize confusion and will provide a much safer working environment.
  24. Exercise overall responsibility for the execution and keep Commanding Officer informed.
    Weapons Officer
  25. Supervise the evolution.
    Ordnance Handling Officer
  26. Ensure required aircraft elevators are manned and all associated damage control equipment is manned.
    Air Officer
  27. Ensure adequate safety observers are available
    Safety Officer
  28. Provide squadron augmentation personnel as required
    Air Wing Ordnance Officer
  29. What are the most significant causes of ordnance accidents?
    • Carelessness
    • Noncompliance with procedures
    • Disorganization
    • Uncalled for haste
    • Ignorance
    • Complacency
    • Lack of effective leadership
  30. The contents of ordnance safety precautions in what publication should be common knowledge to all personnel engaged in the handling of explosive devices?
  31. True or false. The duties of the Ordnance Handling Officer (OHO include, exercising over all responsibility for the execution of ammunition handling evolutions and keeping the Executive Officer and Officer of the Deck informed of any problems.
  32. Aviation Weapons Movement Control Station (AWMCS) is also known by what name?
    Ordnance Control
  33. True or false. The term magazine, also means any compartment or locker, which is used for the storage of explosives, munitions, or pyrotechnics of any kind.
  34. Weapons elevators provide the means to ____________ transfer weapons from the magazines to the required deck.
  35. __________ involves the physical removal of ammunition from the magazines.
  36. Which officer is responsible for ensuring HERO is set prior to before moving aviation ordnance into HERO susceptible areas?
  37. Which officer is responsible for the properly supervised loading, unloading, arming and dearming evolutions?
    Air Wing Ordnance Officer
  38. What is the preferred method of loading or unloading weapons on aircraft?
    Single Hoist Ordnance Loading Systems (SHOLS)
  39. True or false. Arming and dearming shall be conducted in the approved areas in accordance with procedures outlined in the loading checklist the hand signals contained in the CV NATOPS manual.
  40. What represents the times from when a weapon becomes engulfed in flames untildeflagration/explosion occurs?
    cook-off time
  41. What is the uncontrolled burning of explosives without detonation?
  42. Which publication contains the latest and most current information available on cook-off times?
    NAWCWPNS TP-8022
  43. True or false. The NAWCWPNS TP-8022 is updated and maintained by Explosive SafetySupport Office, Pacific (ESSOPAC).

    Naval Air Warfare Center Weapons Division       (NAWCWPNS)
  44. The scientific definition of an explosion is a _________ __________ __________ or_________, with the evolution of heat and the formation of decomposition products, some of whichare gaseous.
    A scientific definition might read, "a rapid chemical decomposition or transformation, with the evolution of heat and the formation of decomposition products, some of which are gaseous."
  45. True or false. The eight weapons test summaries grouping are obtained from a group ofweapons that the ordnance personnel routinely work around.
  46. Who is responsible for maintaining a status board, which confirms the type, quantity, andlocation of all weapons on the flight deck, hangar deck, and aircraft?
    The Air Gunner/Air Wing Ordnance Officer
  47. Who is responsible for keeping the Crash and Salvage Officer/Chief continually updated as tothe type/quantity of ordnance being used?
  48. What are the three Air Department Repair Teams?
    • Aviation fuel repair team.
    • Crash, salvage, and rescue team.
    • Hangar deck firefighting team.
  49. What are the types of information listed on the magazine label plates that mark the various types ofmagazines?
    designating the compartment the types of ammunition to be stowed warnings applicable to specific special hazardous conditions and operations
  50. What is the activity that must approve changes in ammunition stowage made necessary by changesin the types of ammunition or allowances?
  51. What organization must be contacted when there is an unsatisfactory magazine stowage conditionaboard a ship?
  52. Who may authorize the stowage of more than one type of ammunition in one magazine, when thereis a mission requirement?
    Operation Commander
  53. “TRUE” or “FALSE”, Missile launchers and launching systems contain the same safety featuresprovided in missile magazines.
  54. What are certain magazines located in the armored box of aircraft carriers that are used for stowageof complete, assembled rounds of weapons and deployable targets?
    Ready Service Magazine
  55. Who has authorized certain mixed stowage in magazines that retain single-purpose designations?
  56. “TRUE” or “FALSE”, when identical ammunition is to be stowed in several magazines; it shall bedivided as equally as possible.
  57. What shall be installed on lockers to identify its contents?
    external label plate designating the compartment number and type of stowage.
  58. What types of storage requires a magazine sprinkler system?
    Magazine sprinkler systems shall be installed in spaces where munitions are normally stored, serviced, assembled, or temporarily held in readiness. Sprinkler protection is not required for munitions of 40MM in caliber and smaller when stored on or above the main weather deck, unless contiguous to a sprinkled magazine or located in the vicinity of the bridge or other vital ship control area. Stowage compartments for pyrotechnics shall be sprinkled, except for water actuated types.
  59. What are the two types of magazine sprinkler systems?
    • 1. Wet
    • 2. Dry
  60. FH Circuit
    Provides an indication that the sprinkler system has been actuated or thatthere is leakage past the sprinkler control valve.
  61. FD Circuit
    Provides an indication that flooding exists in the protected compartment.
  62. F Circuit
    High temperature alarm
  63. What are the three alarm circuits?
    • FH
    • FD
    • F
  64. Which type of valve is installed in a thermo-pneumatically (automatically) actuated magazine sprinkler system?
  65. What are the two types of Heat Sensing Devices (HSD’s)?
    • Fusible Slug Type
    • Fusible Link Type
  66. When is a dry or wet type hydraulic control system considered modified?
    Any time a component is removed or replaced System integrity is in question
  67. What makes a magazine sprinkler system inspector “qualified”?
    Magazine Sprinkler System Inspector Course (K-041-2137)
  68. What are the main areas of consideration of a magazine sprinkler system during an inspection?
    • 1. is the system installed in accordance with the applicable guidance
    • 2. is the system operational
  69. What activity provides direct fleet support for the maintenance and repair assistance for installed shipboard elevators?
    The Elevator Support Unit (ESU)
  70. What publication covers cargo and weapons elevators aboard U.S. Navy ships?
    (NAVSEA) S9086-ZN-STM-000/CH-772
  71. What are the operator responsibilities for the loading, operating, and unloading of elevators?
    checking the loading and unloading of the elevator platform, and checking the load for correct storage, security, and adequate clearance prior to platform dispatch
  72. True or false. Ordnance Control is considered “positive communication” during elevatorevolutions.

  73. How many different types of elevators are utilized aboard U.S. Navy ships?
    • Electromechanical wire rope
    • Electromechanical screw
    • Electrohydraulic ram
  74. How many elevator sub-systems make up an elevator?
    • 1. Trunk
    • 2. Hoist machinery and its primary elements
    • 3. Closures (doors and hatches)      
    • 4. Controls
    • 5. Communications      
    • 6. Safety devices
  75. Used to determine if the equipment is capableof safe operation during all functional modes.
    No-load test
  76. Used to physically test the structural andmechanical integrity of the elevator.
    Static load test
  77. demonstrates the capability of an elevator tooperate with a rated load under the dynamicconditions of ship motion and equipmentoperation
    Dynamic load test
  78. Demonstrates the elevator’s capability tooperate with a full load, at rated speed, through thecomplete range of operating limits.
    Rated load test
  79. Formal approval through the use of qualification cards is required for all elevator operators andshall consist of what at a minimum?
    • 1. Theoretical knowledge
    • 2. Practical factors
    • 3. Written examination with a minimum grade of 70 percent
    • 4. Oral examination.
    • 5. Department Head approval.
  80. What is the purpose of the Maintenance and Material Management (3M) system and its associated program?
    This system provides for managing maintenance and maintenance support in a manner which will ensure maximum equipment operational readiness
  81. What person aboard ship is normally assigned the position as 3M Systems Coordinator and is responsible to the Executive Officer for coordination and direct supervision of all administrative aspects of the 3M systems program?
    E-6 or above or Officer with NEC 9517
  82. “True” or “False”, the PMS supersedes all previous planned or preventive maintenance systems or programs. Where a difference between the requirements/procedures of PMS and other technical publications or systems exists, PMS requirements prevail.
  83. Who should devote considerable attention to the preparation of the cycle schedule since these efforts will directly affect long-range PMS scheduling?
    Department Heads
  84. Who shall ensure the previous week’s column of the quarterly PMS schedule is updated each Monday?
    Division Officer
  85. What 3M schedule displays the planned maintenance scheduled for accomplishment in a given work center during a specific week?
    The Weekly PMS
  86. What provides detailed procedures for performing maintenance requirements and tell who, what, how, and with what resources a specific requirement is to be accomplished?
    The Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
  87. “TRUE” or “FALSE” Additional 3M systems training courses and training aids that are available include correspondence courses, PMS training films, Maintenance Data System (MDS) training films and the 3M Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS).
  88. What are the four basic principles that must be observed to reduce a ship's fire hazard?
    • 1. Properly stow and protect all combustibles.
    • 2. Make frequent and thorough inspections of all spaces.
    • 3. Educate all personnel in the reduction of fire hazards.
    • 4. Enforce fire prevention policies and practices.
  89. What is a major conflagration?
    is damage of a magnitude that cannot be readily handled by a conventional damage control organization, therefore, all hands participation is required to save the ship.
  90. What document assigns personnel by name to the various duties required for effective fire fighting onboard a ship?
    The fire Bill

    The ship's Watch, Quarter, and Station Bills
  91. Who coordinates all firefighting and damage control actions in his assigned area of the ship?
    The Repair Party Leader
  92. What three inspections are the key to a ship's material readiness and should include Damage Control Petty Officer (DCPO) planned maintenance schedules to check compliance with operational and maintenance requirements?
    • Zone
    • material
    • administrative
  93. Alterations and repair requests for damage control or firefighting purposes shall be classified as?
    safety of ship
  94. Who will ensure that all personnel are drilled to follow escape routes to weather decks?
    Division Officers
  95. What prevents unauthorized and non-supported alterations from being installed on Navy ships?
    The Navy Modernization Program
  96. What is the mission of the Navy Modernization Program?
    Provide a disciplined process to deliver operational and technical modifications to the Fleet in the most operationally effective and cost efficient way
  97. What are the two types of Ship Changes?
    Program & Fleet
  98. What is a Ship Change Document (SCD)?
    The SCD is the single authorized document for all Ship Change's
  99. What is the definition of an Ordnance Alteration (ORDALT)?
    A change in naval ordnance equipment or ordnance associated computer programs
  100. Policies and procedures regarding ORDALT installation are contained in what?
    30.6 & 30.9
  101. What activity prepares a memorandum to SEA 06D2G1 requesting the assignment of an ORDALT number?
    Configuration Control Board (CCB) Secretariat
  102. Who is the Officer in the Weapons Department that manages and directs the operation, care andmaintenance of the ship's armament and magazine spaces?
  103. What Officer is the principal advisor for safety precautions and procedures to be followed inrendering safe unexpended conventional ordnance?
    The EOD Officer
  104. Who is responsible for the physical security and integrity of magazines and ready service stowagespaces, including the control of assigned keys and sprinkler systems test castings?
  105. Who is responsible for ensuring the efficient operation, maintenance and upkeep of assignedmagazines, sprinkler systems, bomb elevators, and associated handling equipment?
  106. Who assist’s and ensures for the proper preparation and timely submission of all requireddepartment reports?
  107. Who is responsible for readiness and maintenance of weapons support equipment, electric forkliftdrivers and maintenance personnel?
  108. Who is responsible for collecting and reporting the daily magazine temperatures (usually via ship’s 12 o’clock report)?
  109. What person must be informed by the squadron Ordnance Officer of any cancellations or changes in the certification status of a squadron ordnanceman when attached to an Air Wing?
    CVW (Air Wing) Ordnance Officer
  110. What individual is responsible for coordinating the efforts of all Air Wing ordnance personnel to ensure a safe and effective ship/Air Wing weapons organization?
  111. Who maintains close liaison with squadron Ordnance Branch Supervisors in the area of new developments/procedures in weapons handling, safety, or future operations?
  112. Who is responsible for safe loading and downloading of all ordnance on assigned aircraft, and is present on the flight deck during ordnance evolutions?
  113. What person ensures team leaders are briefed as to which aircraft will require arming/dearming prior to each evolution?
  114. What person must be thoroughly familiar with all ordnance carried on his squadron’s aircraft, assists in maintaining squadron ordnance safety procedures, and is a senior Petty Officer that is qualified and certified?
  115. “TRUE” or “FALSE” All ordnance loads shall have a quality assurance inspection performed by a certified individual who is not physically involved with the loads
  116. What are the responsibilities of the Combat Cargo Officer aboard an amphibious assault ship as it pertains to ordnance?
    • 1. Prepare stowage plans for all Mission Load Allowance/Landing Force Operational Reserve Material (MLA/LFORM) ordnance on-loads and off-loads
    • 2. Be responsible for the overall stowage of all MLA/LFORM ordnance and cargo.
    • 3. Be aware of all MLA/LFORM ordnance breakouts.
    • 4. Ensure the ship's MLA/LFORM allowance is maintained.
    • 5. Drafts the ship’s MLA/LFORM shortfall message.
    • 6. Train, instruct, and supervise all Condition 1A team members involved with handling ordnance.
    • 7. Ensure that all forklift drivers, elevator and conveyor operators are qualified/ certified in accordance with Chief of Naval Operations (OPNAVINST) 8023.2 series and other related command instructions. Monitored and may be managed by the OHO.
  117. What is the organizational makeup of the Combat Systems Department on a typical amphibious assault ship?
    • The OHO reports to the Weapons Officer. The following report to the OHO for operational matters:
    • 1. The G-1 Division Leading Chief (Flight Deck Ordnance)
    • 2. The G-2 Division Officer or Division Leading Chief (Armory)
    • 3. The G-3 Division Leading Chief (Magazines, storage, handling, assembly/disassembly)
    • 4. The G-4 Division Leading Chief (Ordnance Control/ROLMS)
  118. What are the duties and responsibilities of the Flight Deck Ordnance Safety Supervisor?
    • 1. Maintain communication with the Aircraft Handling Officer and Ordnance Handling Officer.
    • 2. Ensure the safety of all ordnance evolutions on the flight deck, including assembly/ disassembly and staging areas.
    • 3. Ensure the Landing Signal Enlisted (LSE) personnel remain well clear of any forward firing ordnance.
    • 4. Ensure ordnance configured aircraft are armed only in designated areas.
    • 5. Ensure appropriate Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) conditions a reset during all loading/ unloading, or arming/dearming functions on all aircraft.
    • 6. Ensure an aviation ordnance safety observer is observing each ordnance evolution.
    • 7. Immediately halt any ordnance handling or related evolution if a safety infraction is noted.
    • 8. Take immediate action to correct any safety discrepancy.
    • 9. Be responsible for the proper training and performance of aviation ordnance safety observers.
    • 10. Be qualified and certified in writing by the Qual/Cert Board.
  119. Who is responsible for informing the Commanding Officer, Ordnance Handling Officer of aviation ordnance requirements and any changes to the load plan?
  120. Who ensures the EOD representative on the flight deck maintains communications with the Aircraft Handling Officer, Ordnance Handling Officer and the Air Combat Element (ACE) Ordnance Officer to assure rapid response in emergency situations?
  121. Who is responsible to coordinate and supervise the assembly/disassembly, movement, loading/unloading, and arming/dearming of aviation ordnance?
  122. Who is responsible to notify the Ordnance Handling Officer and Officer-of-the-Deck (OOD) when commencing and securing from ammunition movements?
  123. Who ensures that the aviation weapons assembly magazine remains RADHAZ safe whenever ordnance is RADHAZ susceptible?
  124. What must the Combat Cargo Officer ensure and must be aware of when pertaining to ordnance while attached onboard an amphibious assault ship?
    Be aware of all MLA/LFORM ordnance breakouts
  125. What individual is responsible for the safe movement of ordnance from magazines to the flight deck?
  126. Who has the authority and responsibility to immediately halt any evolution if in their judgment safety is being jeopardized?
    Safety Supervisor
  127. What department is responsible for ensuring that the proper Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) conditions have been set before HERO susceptible ordnance is moved out of the normal HERO-safe assembly area?
  128. The weapons flight deck safety petty officer and senior embarked squadron ordnance representative shall maintain a status board in Flight Deck Control which confirms what information?
    the type, quantity, and location of all weapons on the flight deck and/or aircraft. Additionally, weapons cook-off data shall be conspicuously posted in plain view of the Aircraft Handling Officer
  129. What department requires preplanning and close coordination between weapons personnel so that ordnance will be assembled and delivered to the flight deck in sufficient time and quantity to meet the Air Plan?
    Weapon Department and Air Department
  130. Who must be assigned during all aviation ordnance evolutions to ensure compliance with safety standards?
    a certified ordnance safety supervisor
  131. What personnel are required to be stationed accessibly to provide technical assistance to the Aircraft Handling Officer for weapons handling and disposal?
    Properly equipped EOD and a ship's weapons representative
  132. With exceptions of actual loading evolutions, weapons on skids/trucks shall be positioned____________ and _____________ and continuously manned.
    • fore
    • aft
  133. What is the definition of Landing Force Operational Reserve Material (LFORM)?
    LFORM material includes the rations, ammunition, fuel, clothing, weapons, etc., necessary to support a Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) for approximately 30 days
  134. What are four basic types of dunnage systems used aboard amphibious assault ships?
    • Athwartship metal dunnage
    • Wire net shoring system
    • Wire rope tie down system
    • Universal chain tie down
  135. What is used, as specified in NAVSEA OP 4 and SW023-AJ-WHS-010, to segregate incompatible types of ammunition that must be stowed in the same magazine?
  136. In what form is LFORM ammunition cargo normally received on amphibious ships?
    palletized unit loads
  137. True or False: Fume-tight bulkheads may be used to separate non-hazardous materials (LFORM classes I, II, IV and VIII ONLY) from ammunition items.
  138. What class of LFORM is for Ammunition of all types?
    Class V
  139. What is the process in which ship's ammunition cargo is effectively secured so as to prevent movement due to ship's motion or vibration?
  140. What are the responsibilities of the Officer in Tactical Command of the underway replenishment force and the supported force?
    Proper execution of the entire replenishment operation
  141. What are the basic principles of the close coordination required to affecting the transfer of material and personnel between ships?
    To have a clear understanding of the responsibilities of each ship
  142. What are the responsibilities of the control ship during an Underway Replenishment (UNREP)evolution?
    • Maintain course and speed
    • Controlling in close coordination with the approaching ship
    • Avoiding navigational hazards and collision
  143. What are the specific advantages of Vertical Replenishment (VERTREP) over a Connected Replenishment (CONREP)?
    • Reduction in time to replenish supported forces or units
    • Reduction or elimination of time screening ships required off station
    • Reduction in personnel involved
    • Capability of replenishing units in a dispersed formation
    • Capability of replenishing units on station in shallow water or anchor
  144. What are the conditions that would warrant ordering an emergency breakaway?
    • Engineering
    • Casualty
    • Enemy Contact
    • Launch/Recovery
    • Fouled Screws
    • Man overboard
  145. What types of information are displayed on the status boards in the Aviation Ordnance Control Center?
    • Aircraft
    • Event Number
    • Weapons Scheduled
    • Launch Times
    • Magazine Manning
    • Weapons Elevator Status
  146. What are the main communications systems that are used by the Weapons Department?
    • 46MC Aviation Ordnance Control Center announcing system (CVNs),
    • the Sound Powered Phone System (x19J, x20J, x24J),
    • the Intercommunications System (30MC), and,
    • if necessary, the general shipboard announcing system (1MC), ship's service telephone and a new Wire-Free Communications (WIFCOM) system
  147. What alarm systems are of great concern to Weapons Department personnel?
    • a. Circuit F - High temperature alarm.
    • b. Circuit FD - Flooding alarm.
    • c. Circuit FH - Sprinkler alarm.
    • d. Flight Deck Crash Alarm.
  148. UNREP efficiency may be reduced by as much as ____________ by a change in the order alongside.
    50 percent
  149. Which units should the Commander conducting the UNREP, order to be first alongside?
    those units which have Standard Tensioned Replenishment Alongside Method (STREAM) rigs or routine stores requirements (carriers are excepted)
  150. What can you plan to minimize time alongside?
    a combination of VERTREP and CONREP can be used
  151. What distance abeam should the receiving ship be for night VERTREP?
    300 to 500 yards
  152. Why is it important that the AOCC receive constant information on the location of each and every skid load of weapons?
    Aviation Ordnance Control Center (AOCC)
  153. What action is required at the receiving activity when ammunition items received are suspected of not being of serviceable quality and are rejected?
    Ammunition items received that are suspected of not being of serviceable quality and rejected shall be the subject of a letter report (with appropriate photographs) to NAVSEASYSCOM via the unit afloat chain of command, with a copy to the ammunition activity concerned.
  154. What person is responsible for providing any necessary equipment, such as slings and carriers, for the safe and efficient handling of ammunition during ammunition off-load?
    C.O. of the ammunition activity
  155. What person is designated and observes the handling of hazardous material to prevent unsafe practices, and shall have the authority to stop all phases of an operation involving the handling of ammunition at a pier?
    Safety Loading Officer
  156. What activity shall furnish qualified personnel to assist the ship's Safety Officer as requested, for ammunition handling evolutions?
    Ammunition Activity
  157. What must be held prior to or upon arrival of a Navy ship at an explosives pier for loading or off loading of ammunition or other hazardous material?
    A conference shall be held to coordinate safety procedures on the pier and onboard ship
  158. Ammunition and explosives shall not be loaded on or discharged from a ship, lighter, or barge at night, except when required by the loading schedule or __________________?
    In and Emergency
  159. "True" or "False", ammunition and explosives shall not be handled unless the items are specifically identifiable and the hazard characteristics are known.
  160. What is the ultimate goal of the Shipboard Explosives Safety Inspection (SESI)?
    Maintain the highest level of fleet readiness be preventing mishaps involving ammunition and explosives Eliminate associated deaths, injuries, lost work days and property damage
  161. True or false. NOSSA is assigned as the DoN’s technical authority for explosive safety.
  162. Training, PQS, and Qualification/Certification are elements under what Program?
    Program 01
  163. Training, PQS, and Qualification/Certification are elements under what Program?
    Program 01
  164. Stowage, Housekeeping, and equipment are elements under what Program
    Program 02
  165. What are the TYCOM’s responsibilities for SESI?
    Assist in schedule SESIs with the ESSOs. Monitor and follow-up on the discrepancies cited in SESI TAV/SESI reports
  166. Who does the TYCOM schedule the SESI with?
  167. How many Programs encompass a Shipboard Explosives Safety Inspection (SESI)?
  168. Which program covers AA&E Physical Security and Administration?
    Program 12
  169. What is the governing instruction for the CWTPI/SHOC program?
  170. True or false. COMNAVAIRFOR squadrons having conventional weapons capability are direct to maintain a high state of readiness.
  171. When must VP squadrons have their CWTPI inspection completed?
    30 to 150 days prior to surge deployment
  172. Is it possible to obtain a waiver for squadron falling out of the CWTPI interval?
  173. True or false. COMNAVAIRFOR (N40C) is responsible for maintaining a CWTPI program for squadrons in their jurisdiction.

    Type Wing Commander
  174. Who is responsible for providing the ordnance load plan to the unit being inspected?
    Type Wing Commander
  175. Who does the Type Wing Commander notify in the event of an unsatisfactory CWTPI?
  176. True or false. The Chief Inspector for a SHOC is assigned by the MAG.

  177. During SHOC, what must Marine aviation ordnancemen use with established procedures when loading?
    using SHOLS equipment, and observing all applicable safety and RADHAZ precautions and AWSE
  178. What is the purpose of the Fleet Readiness Training Plan?
    The FRTP was designed to meet the requirements of the Fleet Turnaround Cycle (FTC).
  179. What are the four phases of the Fleet Readiness Training Plan?
    • 1. Maintenance
    • 2. Unit Level Training
    • 3. Integrated Training
    • 4. Deployment and Sustainment
  180. What are the four assessments that Aviation Ordnance Officers need to be concerned about during the Integrated and Sustainment Phases of the Fleet Readiness Training Plan?
    • WORA
    • MORA
    • MRA
    • AOSA
  181. Who is tasked with assisting COMSURFOR with performing Aviation Ordnance Safety Assessments?
    COMNAVSURFOR LANT/PAC Fleet Weapons Support Team (FWST) representatives
  182. Why was the Composite Readiness Development Plan (CRDP) developed?
    to formally establish Type Commander (TYCOM) management and control required to update and maintain readiness for each carrier/Air Wing team by formulating individualized readiness development plans which identify major milestone tasks
  183. What person is the coordinator that is responsible for the readiness development plan for a specific Carrier/Air Wing?
    The Battle Group Staff Milestone Coordinator
  184. What time period is the initial Readiness Review Conference held?
    following return from extended deployment
  185. Who recommends to the Numbered Fleet Commanders, that the ship and air wing are ready for advanced phase training?
    Training Carrier Group Commanders
  186. What is the primary function of the Aircraft Carrier Training and Readiness Manual?
    • a. To serve as a guide for conducting ship-wide, departmental and team training during the Inter Deployment Training Cycle (IDTC) and to serve as a standard for measuring readiness.
    • b. The goal of the training cycle is to provide the battle group commanders with trained aircraft carrier crews capable of immediate integration into and sustained operations as a combat-ready Battle Group.
  187. What activity provides assistance to TYCOM/ISIC in the conduct of inspections, certifications,assessments and assists visits?
    Commander Afloat Training Group (ATG)
  188. The second Readiness Review Conference shall be scheduled 180 days prior to deployment. This conference will _________________________.
    highlight training that remains to be accomplished
  189. True or false. A Navy ship or other craft that is at a pier or wharf forms part of the Naval shore activity.
  190. Who has the authority and responsibility for ensuring that all vessels at the pier or wharf comply with station safety regulations?
    The Commanding Officer
  191. What approval is needed to load out a merchant vessel other than a Military Sealift Command ship?
    NAVSEA or higher authority
  192. True or false. A Class IV storage is reserved for all forms of open storage whether permanent or temporary.

    Class III Storage
  193. What type of lightning protection system uses masts that are remote from the structure to provide the primary attachment point for a lightning discharge?
    Mast System
  194. How often shall a visual inspection of the lightning protection system be performed?
    Every 6 months
  195. Does the ammunition stored in the magazines contribute to the NEW of a pier?
  196. True or false. No sheds for cargo storage or warehouse use shall be constructed on explosive piers or wharves.
  197. Is it feasible to store explosives or ammunition temporarily in any pier shed?
  198. True of false. When selecting a site for an explosive pier or wharf, proximity to water of sufficient depth to permit sinking of a vessel is not considered.
  199. Weapons stowage and handling data sheets provide what?
    • provide stacking,
    • tie-down,
    • compatibility,
    • and handling information.
  200. What are the three MAPA system components?
  201. True or false. MAPA contains stacking requirements for using the 4,000 lb pneumatic hoist system.
  202. True or false. MAPA does not contain any information on Weapons Elevator Data
  203. What publication determines the compatibility of weapons used within MAPA?
Card Set
AOOCP Chapter 3
Questions for test 3