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Which factor controls radiographic contrast?
A) exposure time(s)
B) kVp
C) mA
D) SID
B) kVp
Which radiographic term refers to the degree of blackness between two adjacent areas on a radiograph?
A) recorded detail
B) contrast
C) magnification
D) density
B) contrast
Which of the following factors controls shape distortion?
A) mA
B) SID
C) milliampere-time (mAs)
D) alignment
D) aligment
Who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient?
A) radiographer
B) chief technologist
C) department receptionist
D) radiology nurse
A) radiographer
To properly dispose of a hypodermic needle, it should be:
A) recapped
B) broken to prevent its reuse
C) bent
D) placed in a puncture-proof container
D) placed in a puncture-proof container
What is the medical property classification of isopropyl alcohol?
A) sterilizer
B) germicide
C) disinfectant
D) antiseptic
D) antiseptic
Within the operating room, who should remove sterile items that are in the way of the radiographer?
A) circulating nurse
B) anestesiologist
C) surgeon
D) radiographer
A) circulating nurse
Which type of muscle tissue produces peristalsis?
A) smooth
B) cardiac
C) striated
A) smooth
Which type of muscle tissue comprises skeletal muscle?
A) smooth
B) striated
C) cardiac
B) striated
Which pathologic condition requires a decrease in exposure factors from the routine procedure?
A) pleural effusion
B) edema
C) pneumonia
D) emphysema
D) emphysema
Which change in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness?
A) increase the exposure time
B) decrease the mA
C) decrease the exposure time
D) increase the mA
C) decrease the exposure time
Which procedure best reduces the possibility of patient-controlled motion?
A) increase the mA
B) user shorter SID
C) increase the exposure time
D) give understandable instructions to the patient
D) give understandable instructions to the patient
Which side marker placement rule applies when performing an AP oblique radiograph of the cervical spine?
A) the R marker is typically used
B) always mark side farthest from IR
C) the L marker is typically used
D) always mark side closest to IR
D) always mark side closest to IR
Which piece of information is NOT required as part of the identification of radiographs?
A) name of the radiographer
B) date of the examination
C) name of the patient
D) name of the medical facility
A) name of the radiographer
What is the primary purpose of collimating to the area of interest?
A) lengthens the scale of contrast
B) compensates for an increase in OID
C) reduces patient exposure
D) reduces the required mA
C) reduces patient exposure
How is a radiographic image quality affected when the radiation beam is restricted to the area under examination only?
A) reduced magnification
B) increased fog
C) increased radiographic density
D) increased radiographic contrast
D) increase radiographic contrast
Which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image?
A) video monitor
B) control panel
C) imaging plate
D) image reader
C) imaging plate
In direct digital imaging, how is collimation (field size) controlled?
A) all of these control field size in direct digital imaging
B) electronically by shuttering
C) automatically by an automatic collimator
D) manually by the radiographer
D) manually by the radiographer
All of the following are disadvantages of using a larger IR or field size on obese patients, except for:
A) increased fog
B) decreased visibility of detail
C) decreased contrast
D) decreased scatter
D) decreased scatter
The approximate distance from the jugular notch to the pubic symphysis on a patient who is more than 6 feet tall is:
A) 24 inches
B) 15 inches
C) 21 inches
D) 22 inches
A) 24 inches
Author
kris10berry
ID
230526
Card Set
1st Year Questions
Description
questions for 1st yrs
Updated
2013-08-20T01:48:23Z
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