Avionics Flashcards: Volume 1 - Pt.1

  1. What is your duty in maintenance?
    To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
  2. What types of actions are considered part of maintenance?
    Inspection, repair, overhaul, modification, preservation, refurbishment, testing, analyzing condition, and performance.
  3. When performing maintenance, you must place emphasis on what factors?
    Safety, quality, and timeliness.
  4. What is the purpose of the maintenance process?
    To sustain a capability to support the flying and training missions.
  5. What type of maintenance ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
  6. What is the difference between on-equipment and off-equipment maintenance?
    On-equipment is work performed on an aircraft or piece of support equipment, while off equipment work is typically performed in a repair shop on components remove during on-equipment maintenance.
  7. What are the three levels of maintenance capability?
    Organizational, Intermediate, & Depot.
  8. What is an example of organization-level maintenance?
    An operational check of the ALQ-131 pod while loaded on an aircraft.
  9. Primarily, what is intermediate-level maintenance?
    Testing and either repairing or replacing component parts.
  10. Why would a component or equipment item be sent to depot for repair?
    Because it can't be fixed by personnel at either the organization or intermediate level.
  11. What is the highest level of maintenance?
  12. Who allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requirements?
    The Wing Commander (WG/CC).
  13. Which AFI cover duties and responsibilities of key leadership within a maintenance organization?
    AFI 21-101.
  14. Who manages the wing's QAPs?
    The Group Commander (GP/CC).
  15. Who ensures compliance with the wing EPA program?
    The Squadron Commander.
  16. Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    The Maintenance Supervisor.
  17. Who is the first-line manager and technical authority in their area of maintenance supervision?
    The Section Chief.
  18. Which three squadrons exist under the MXG?
    MXS, AMXS, & MOS.
  19. The MXS is comprised of which flights?
    Propulsion, Avionics, TMDE, Accessory, AGE, Fabrication, Armament Systems, Maintenance, & Munitions.
  20. Who maintains off-equipment aircraft and support equipment components, performs on-equipment maintenance of aircraft, and provides repair and calibration of TMDE?
  21. For what is the AMXS responsible?
    Servicing, inspecting, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned and transient aircraft.
  22. For what is PMEL responsible?
    Maintaining, calibrating, and certifying TMDE.
  23. The avionics flight primarily performs off-equipment maintenance on what systems/equipment?
    Avionics components, EW systems and sensor pods, airborne video tape recording systems, and airborne photographic systems.
  24. Who is responsible for quality maintenance?
    Individual maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders.
  25. What is the role of QA?
    To assess, analyze, and identify problem that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and increase reliability and maintainability.
  26. How does QA identify trends and problem areas?
    By collecting performance data, performing inspections and special assessments, recommending possible corrective actions to supervisors, and providing on-the-spot assistance.
  27. What AFI covers maintenance management of aircraft?
    AFI 21-101.
  28. What two factors determine the off-base requisitioning priority?
    UJC & FAD.
  29. How is due-out created?
    When a requirement is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request.
  30. When is the customer not granted credit upon cancellation of an obligated memo due-out?
    When the due-out was obligated in a prior FY.
  31. What does AFMAN 23-110, Volume 6 cover?
    Policies and procedures for Air Force participation in the DOD PMRP.
  32. What code identifies an item as consumable?
    ERRC XB3.
  33. What are the three basic repair cycle action categories?
    AWM, INW, & AWP.
  34. What form is used for local purchase requests?
    DD Form 1348-6.
  35. What for is used for requesting supplies in the event IMDS is down?
    AF Form 2005.
  36. How many alphanumeric characters make up a document number?
  37. What's the purpose of the organization code within a document number?
    Identifies the unit or subordinate activity.
  38. On an AF Form 2005, what field identifies the end item?
  39. How would you annotate a DD Form 1348-1A if you were refusing deliver of an asset?
    Write "ORGANIZATIONAL REFUSAL" on all copies of the DD Form 1348-1A.
  40. In what TO are the procedure for submitting deficeincy reports found?
  41. Define a CAT 1 deficiency report.
    • It's a report of a product deficiency that would:
    • 1. Cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness.
    • 2. Cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
    • 3. Critically restricts combat readiness capability.
    • 4. Results in a production line stoppage.
  42. Who is responsible for preparing the draft DR?
    The originator.
  43. What restrictions must be met when considering an item for a DR?
    Any item, regardless of ERRC code, is subject to DR procedures.
  44. What's a warranty?
    A contract between the purchaser and manufacturer.
  45. What does a warranty explain and identify?
    The responsibilities of the purchaser and manufacturer; how long, by operating time or calendar period, the manufacturer is responsible for the equipment.
  46. Where can you find procedures and responsibilities for acquiring, administrating, and reporting on WSWs?
    AFMAN 64-110, Manual for Weapon System Warranties.
  47. The four inspection concepts?
    Periodic, phased, isochronal, and programmed depot maintenance.
  48. When is an isochronal completed? Why is it done at this time?
    On the date due, regardless of the hours flown. To accommodate aircraft scheduling.
  49. Which inspection concept applies to all aircraft?
    Programmed depot maintenance.
  50. List the purpose and scope of the preflight inspection.
    Flight preparedness, this inspection is a thorough (visual and operational) check of specific equipment.
  51. When is a basic postflight inspection done?
    After the last flight of the flying period.
  52. What type of inspection determines if the aircraft is suitable for another flight?
    Basic postflight.
  53. Why was the phase inspection developed?
    To reduce the time the aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection.
  54. Who has the responsibility of performing operator inspections?
    The user.
  55. Who or what directs when special inspections are performed?
  56. What is the purpose of an acceptance inspection?
    To determine the equipment's serviceability and the condition of the equipment documents.
  57. Who performs the transfer inspection if more than 75 percent of the inspection interval has elapsed?
    The transferring organization.
  58. When are periodic inspections and lubrication requirements done?
    Periodic inspections are performed on a recurring, scheduled basis. The intervals, and what items are inspected, and carefully planned to try and catch malfunctions before they happen; hence, they're also known as preventive maintenance.
  59. What three activities are normally done during a periodic inspection?
    Corrosion control, cleaning, & lubrication.
  60. Why is it important to make sure the test station and work area are kept clean?
    To ensure valid testing and prevent contamination of equipment.
  61. Why is it important to keep test station and LRU surfaces painted?
    Paint prevents corrosion from starting.
Card Set
Avionics Flashcards: Volume 1 - Pt.1
001-010 Self-Test Questions.