Patho exam 3

which condyloma is thin, flat, moist, and is associated with secondary syphilis

which condyloma is papillary or elevated, is NOT syphilis

what are the strands of HPV that can cause condyloma acuminata

what is another name for anogenital warts

what are the frequent offenders of vaginits

an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis due to a decrease in normal flora and increased pH is known as what

what are the clinical characteristics of bacterial vaginosis

which lab is done to check for bacterial vaginosis

vulvar tumors affect women usually older than 60 y/o and many are what type of carcinoma

which strand of HPV may be responsible for vulvar tumors

what do you want to look for when looking for vulvar tumors

what type of vaginal cancers occur in children younger then 5 y/o

an inflammation of the cervix is known as what

what are the pathogens that can cause cervicitis

in cervical carcinoma, what is there an increase in discovery of

what type of tumors of the cervix can be seen on cytology smears

what is CIN I in tumors of the cervix

what is CIN II in tumors of the cervix

what is CIN III in tumors of the cervix

what is CIS in tumors of the cervix

what are the risk factors for CIN and invasive CA

what are the high risk HPV subtypes

what are the low-risk HPV types

the inner lining of the uterus is known as what

the muscular walls of the uterus are known as what

tubes, ovaries and ligaments of the uterus are known as what

excessive or irregular bleeding with no physical lesion is known as what

This is usually due to an excess estrogen relative to progestin and in time it can give rise to endometrial carcinoma

These are often called fibroid tumors

These are common benign tumors of uterine smooth muscle, they are found in 30 to 50% of pts during reproductive years, it is more common in blacks and whites usually greater than 30 years old, they do shrink after menopause and are usually multiple and asymptomatic

These are unusual, they are cancers arising from myometrium, do not arise from leiomyoma, they are usually solitary lesions and recurrence after removal is common

This is caused by endometrial tissue outside the uterus

Endometriosis is more common in which patient population

Endometriosis is less common in which patient population

This is a growth of basal layer of endometrium down into the myometrium

What can patients present to the clinic with when suspecting adenomyosis

These typically produced bleeding from the uterus as the earliest manifestation

These can occur at any age, generally at time of menopause, and they result in abnormal uterine bleeding

Post menopausal vaginal bleeding must be evaluated for what

What is the most common GYN cancer in the United States, the average age at presentation is 61, and most present with abnormal uterine bleeding

Endometrial carcinoma frequently arises from what

What are the well-defined risk factors for endometrial carcinoma

This type of infection in endometritis is usually caused by bacterial infections after delivery or miscarriage, and is associated with pain, discomfort, and fever

This type of infection is associated with endometritis and is associated with either retained gestational tissue, intrauterine contraceptive devices, or chronic gonorrhea pelvic disease

Inflammation of the fallopian tubes, nearly always bacterial in origin is known as what

What are the species that cause salpingitis

What are the species that has postpartum salpingitis

What is an infection of the pelvic organs be on the body of the uterus called

What are the principle biochemical abnormalities of polycystic ovaries

What are the clinical presentations of polycystic ovaries

Risk factors for ovarian cancer are what

Post menopausal vaginal bleeding can because by what

Postpartum uterine infection can because by what

tubal infection is known as what

A painful menses is known as what

A heavy menses is known as what

Ectopic endometrial tissue is known as what

Implantation fertilized egg outside the endometrium is normally called what

an interruption of pregnancy before fetal viability is known as what

This type of abortion usually has no identifiable cause, many unknown pregnancies end in this type of abortion

This type of abortion is surgically performed at the women's request

Which type of spontaneous abortion is when the fetus and placenta are completely expulsed, and woman resumes normal menses

Which type of spontaneous abortion is when there is cervical dilation and expulsion of some fetal parts with some parts of placenta being retained

Which type of spontaneous abortion can result in endometritis if it becomes infected

Which type of spontaneous abortion is when there is a death of a fetus, which remains in utero

Which type of spontaneous abortion is where there is cervical bleeding, but cervix does not dilate and pregnancy may continue uneventfully

This is a result of abnormally functioning placenta or abnormal materno-placental interaction

What are some clinical features of pre-eclampsia

What are some clinical features of eclampsia

What is HELLP syndrome

What is the function of the hypothalamus

What is the function of your thyroid glands

What is the function of your pancreas

What is the function of ovaries

What is the function of your pituitary gland

What is the function of the parathyroid

What is the function of the thymus

What is the function of the adrenal glands

Which hormone stimulates secretion of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex

Which hormone stimulates reabsorption of water by kidneys, reducing the concentration of solute in the blood

Which hormone stimulates egg production in females, stimulates sperm production males

Which hormone regulates development of muscles and bones

Which hormone stimulates progesterone and estrogen production, initiates ovulation in females, stimulates testosterone production

Which hormone initiates uterine contractions during childbirth, stimulates flow of milk from breast during lactation

Which hormone stimulates milk production and breasts during lactation

Which hormones regulate secretion of the thyroid hormones; thyroxine and triiodothyronine

Which type of hormones stimulate functions of other endocrine glands

A flat lesion measuring less than 2 cm in diameter, it is not raised or depressed, primarily a change in skin color (ie, freckle) is known as what

This is similar to a macule but larger than 2 cm (skin rash that occurs in measles)

This type of skin lesion is slightly elevated, small induration of skin, with a diameter of less then 1 cm (these are the hallmark of eczema)

This type of skin lesion is similar to a papule but larger (1-5 cm diameter)

A nodule at the diameter exceeding 5 cm is known as what

A fluid filled elevation of the epidermis measuring less than 1 cm in diameter is known as what

a large vesicle measuring more than 1 cm in diameter is known as what

A vesicle filled with pus is known as what

A defect or erosion of the epidermis is known as what

A skin defect covered with coagulated plasma or blood is known as what

keratin layers that cover the skin in flakes or sheets, and that can easily be scrapped away are known as what

A superficial skin defect caused by scratching

A sharp edged defect in the dermis that extends into the deeper layers of the skin is known as what

This is an autosomal dominant trait that has thick scales resembling fish skin

This term is used to denote several skin disorders

This congenital skin disorder is also known as port wine Mark

An aggregate of small blood vessels usually on the face is known as what

A superficial tearing of epidermal cells is known as what

"bruise"- bleeding into the soft tissues due to disruption of underlying small blood vessels is known as what

A jagged tear, often seen with stretching of the skin and/or underlying tissue is known as what

A clean, sharp cut is known as what

A deep tubular wound produced by a sharp thin object is known as what

What type of puncture wound is when the puncture pierces the tissues

Which type of puncture wound is when the puncture transverses the tissue to make an exit

Which degree burn includes the epidermis only, appears with erythema; blanches with pressure, sensations are intact; mild to moderate pain,and  the healing takes about three – six days without scarring

What type of second-degree burn includes the epidermis and superficial dermis; skin appendages intact, appears with erythema, blisters, its moist, elastic, and blanches with pressure, sensations are intact; with severe pain, healing takes about 1-3 weeks; scarring unusual

What type of second-degree burn is when the epidermis and most of the dermis is involved; most skin appendages are destroyed, will have a white color appearing with erythamtous areas dry, waxy looking, less elasticity, reduced blanching to pressure, decreased sensation; maybe less painful, healing takes greater than three weeks; often with scarring and contractures

Which degree burn involves the epidermis and all of the dermis; destruction of all skin appendages, appears white, charred, tan, thrombosed vessels; dry and leathery; does not blanch, anesthetic not painful (although surrounding areas of second-degree burns are painful), does not heal; severe scarring and contractures

Which type of cold injury is when the tissue injury results from prolonged exposure to non-freezing cold and moisture presents with skin necrosis, with blisters and ulcers

Which type of cold injury is caused by subfreezing temperatures, involves mostly fingers, toes, ears, nose. Upon rewarming, area may appear blotchy red and swollen

In electrical injuries the most severe damage usually involves what areas near the entry or exit point

In electrical injuries when there is damage to the blood vessels what may occur

Which type of radiation injury may result in partial thickness burns, chronic exposure damages the skin and may accelerate the aging of skin and may develop into cancer

Which type of radiation injury is due to prolonged or repeated exposures of large doses which can cause significant lesions

What are the four groups within neoplasms of skin

What are the A – B – C – D of skin cancer diagnoses

This type of tumor of the epithelial cells is the  most common benign skin tumor, is usually friable and easily removed, has a brownish, solitary or multiple flat-topped lesions, and sometimes even a stuck on appearance

What type of tumor of the epithelial cells is the most common malignant one, is seen on sun exposed areas, has a pearly (shiny) surface, often heaped up, with central ulcer, is locally invasive, but does not metastasize

Which type of epithelial cell tumor is seeing on sun exposed areas, considered precancerous, might lead to squamous cell carcinoma, and may progress into a more atypical lesion: carcinoma in situ

Which type of epithelial cell tumor is most often in sun exposed areas (like basal cells), is a small flat plaque, a persistent ulcer, or slightly elevated. Histologically, indistinguishable from other squamous cell carcinoma, and locally invasive and metastasizes

Tumors of the pigmentary cells arise from where

This is a macule or patch of the skin in which the melanocytes show hyper-reactivity to UV light

This is a sharply demarcated macule occupied by increased number of melanocytes; is unresponsive to UV

This developmental skin abnormality is consisting of an overabundance of melanocytes such as dermal nevus, functional nevus, compound nevus

What is the most common congenital skin anomaly

This is composed of normal skin elements arranged in an abnormal manner, is composed of melanocytes, and are usually innocuous lesions that require no treatment

Which type of nevus is malignant and can require a full thickness excision and skin graft

This is a cancerous tumor originating from the melanocytes, half originate from normal skin, the other half from freckles or pre-existing nevi

What are some common forms of bacterial skin infections

This type of bacterial skin infection is a superficial infection involving streptococci or Staphylococcus aureus, is characterized by honey colored scabs, it's most found on the face of small children, and highly contagious but responds well to antibiotics

Which type of bacterial skin infection is an infection that is limited to the hair follicles, most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and typically involves hairy areas, such as the beard

Which type of bacterial skin infection involves the hair shaft and perifollicular tissue – "boil"

Which type of bacterial skin infection is where the original furuncle now involves multiple hair shafts and become much larger, is often located on the head or neck, and is more common in males than females

What is a chronic recurring infection commonly in the axilla and groin

What are dermatophytes caused by

What tend to live in dead tissue, cause almost no inflammation in underlying skin, and the name often implies the location

Where is tinea pedis located

Where is tinea capitis located

Where is tinea manum located

where is tinea unguium located

where is tinea corporis located

What is the cause of thrush in children

Which type of fungi are found primarily in tropical climates

Some invasive deep fungal infections cause large destructive lesions and tumor like lesions called what

This is an abnormality of skin langerhan (dendritic) cells, which modulate inflammation and can be accompanied by localized edema, papules, and vesicles, and usually is accompanied by pruritis

What are the two major forms of eczema and what can cause them

This is a widespread chronic disease affecting 10 to 20% of the US population, presents with erythema, scaling, and itching of the skin especially nasolabial folds, eyebrows, upper chest, often leads to abundant dandruff, and treatments typically provide little to moderate relief

This affects 1 to 2% of populations, is T- lymphocyte mediated autoimmunity involving keratinocytes, results in slightly elevated papules and patches that are covered with a silvery scale, mostly on extensor surfaces of extremity such as elbows and knees, and eruptions typically occur symmetrically, then slowly fade away

Which penis malformation has an abnormal location of the urethral orifice on the ventral aspect of the shaft

Which penis malformation has an abnormal location of the urethral orifice on the dorsal aspect of theshaft

And inflammation of the glans penis is known as what

And inflammation of the glans and foreskin is known as what

In balanoposthitis what is an accumulation of desquamated epithelials, sweat, debris that act as a local irritant

This occurs when the prepuce (foreskin) cannot retract back over glans, it is stuck to the glans, and most cases are due to scarring from previous episodes of balanoposthitis

Swollen foreskin that cannot pull back down to the original position that causes swelling and can impair blood supply to the glans is known as what

A penile erection of at least four hours, not associated with sexual stimulation is known as what

Which type of priapism is a complication that is similar to compartment syndrome; later erectile dysfunction result of not quickly corrected

Which type of priapism is due to trauma to the perineum, spinal cord, and might require only observation

This is the most common STI in the United States

Which type of STI produces vesicles with clear fluid, most people are not aware of the infection, patients may have flulike symptoms with the first outbreak, may have several outbreaks the first year and then have decreased frequency, there's no permanent cure

This is the most frequent bacterial STI reported in the United States, it is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is transmitted via vaginal, anal, or oral sex, and it can be passed to babies during vaginal delivery

in males this STI presents as a purulent urethritis, they will have dysuria, yellow urethral discharge 2 to 5 days after exposure, invades mucosa of urethra and periurethral glands, and if left untreated it can lead to infertility

This STI is caused by Treponema pallidum, it has three clinical stages: primary, secondary, tertiary

Which stage of syphilis is a painless ulcer (chancre) that appears 1 to 12 weeks after exposure

Which stage of syphilis shows within two months to two years after primary infection, the systemic symptoms are a fever, rash (condyloma lata)

Which stage of syphilis is seen in untreated patients to 2-20 years after primary infection, and is dangerous to CV systems and CNS

Neoplasms of the penis mostly originate from which type of cells

Which types of HPV can form neoplasms of the penis

What is the most common form of neoplasm of the penis in which 10% become invasive squamous cell carcinoma's

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum is known as what

What is the most common type of groin hernia and both sexes, the congenital defect can be patent process vaginalis, the sac might extend into the scrotum

This type of hernia cannot be reduced and it requires immediate consult to the surgeon to prevent strangulation

What is the difference between a strangulated hernia and an incarcerated hernia

This is a collection of serious fluid in the peritoneal sac around the testes, usually presents as unilateral, can be congenital and infants, and acquired which results in local inflammation in adults

If a patient presents to you with unilateral swelling of the testes what do you want to look for

How can you tell if a patient has a hydrocele

A collection of blood in the scrotal sac is known as a what

This may begin as a UTI or prostatitis, usually caused by gram-negative bacteria in elderly individuals, or chlamydia causes this in young adults, and it may progress to orchitis

Inflammation of the testes is known as what

Which is more serious epididymitis or orchitis

This is more common in young adult white males, and is always considered cancer until proven otherwise

What tests are run to determine testicular neoplasms

Surgery that removes the testes is known as what

95% of these are germ cell tumors back and differentiate into different cell types

If a patient presents with acute scrotal/testicular pain, swelling, and erythema, what do you want to suspect

What is the treatment for a testicular torsion

This feels like a bag of worms in the scrotum superior to the testicle, can cause testis atrophy or sterility, and no treatment is required but can be surgically repaired if painful or causing sterility

Dilated veins of pampiniform plexus is known as a what

If the patient has a varicocele on the right side what must you evaluate for

Which type of prostatitis is usually caused by E. coli, the patient will present to you with dysuria, lower back pain, pelvic pain, fever/chills, may have a painful ejaculation, in blood in the semen

Which type of prostatitis presents as a persistent low-grade infection, can be an incidental finding on a urinalysis or rectal exam, and the prostate may be tender and soft

This type of prostate disorder peaks in the 70s, most men greater than 80 years old are effected, occurs when the nodules grow gradually squeezing the urethra, it can result in a complete urethral obstruction and that leads to hydronephrosis or renal dysfunction

If the patient presents to you with a progressive decrease in size and strength of a urinary stream, complains of urinary urgency where he has to go all the time and only a little comes out and also urinary frequency, if you feel an easy palpable enlarged prostate on the rectal exam what do you suspect

This usually occurs in older men greater than 60, it is more common than long cancer, but not as deadly, most are adenocarcinomas

A congenital absence of the breast is known as what

Development of more than two breast is known as what

Breast tissue with or without a netball (occasionally found and axilla), is known as what

Additional breast along the milk line (as in cats and dogs) is known as what

Supernumerary nipples without glands is known as what

An operation that lifts ptotic breasts is known as what

Most common inflammatory disease of the breast that usually occurs during lactation, the common pathogens are staph and strep, and a patient has diffuse or localized edema and/or erythema, pain, tenderness to palpation, possible purulent discharge from the nipple is known as what

This type of mastitis is caused by an unknown etiology, and a biopsy to confirm diagnosis and rule out cancer is required

What are the main symptoms of mastitis

This is the most common tumor of the female breast, is usually seen in young women, and almost never becomes malignant

These are usually benign, but may become malignant, it is much less common than the fibroadenomas, is a leaf-like tumor that can grow large to massive in size, and in about 50% of malignant ones they tend to metastasize to different sites

This can mimic breast-cancer both radiographically and on physical exam, patient has a history of trauma in about 50% of the cases, and a needle biopsy is needed for diagnosis

This is often called fibrocystic disease in the past, is extremely common in childbearing women, and common findings are breast pain, nipple discharge, and masses

This is mostly common in older women, 5th and 6th decades, it can mimic carcinoma clinically and on mammogram, it is a thick, sticky, green to greenish-black discharge that plugs the ducts, and spills into surroundings stroma which leads to plasma cell mastitis

When do you do an excisional biopsy on a breast mass

A neoplastic papillary growth within the lacteriferous duct is as known as a what

If a patient presents to you with a serous or bloody nipple discharge and you notice a few millimeter subareolar wart like tumor on the nipple, what are you going to suspect

This is second only to lung cancer as the leading cause of cancer death in women, and typically occurs on the left side slightly more than the right

What are the higher risks for breast cancer

What are the lower risks for breast cancer

When the skin thickens around exaggerated hair follicles due to obstruction of dermal lymphatics by cancer, this is known as what

This is a ductal carcinoma involving the nipple, may or may not have a palpable mass, may have nipple itching or burning, or an eczematoid, crusted lesion of the nipple areola

If there is a microcalcification (without mass), how is it excised

If you have a mass how is it removed

This type of cancer most arises from epithelial cells, 80% are infiltrating ductal carcinoma's, most metastasize via lymphatics, most often via the axillary lymph nodes and sometimes the internal mammary nodes

Which type of lesions typically spread first to the axillary nodes

The external surface of bone, containing osteoblasts, fibroblasts, blood vessels and nerves is known as the what

Spaces where osteocytes (osteoclast and osteoblasts) live within the osteons are called what

these within the osteons extends from the osteocytes

Layers of collagen within osteons are called what

these secrete collagen and ground substance to build bone matrix; called osteocytes after maturing

These cleave or resorb bone

What type of ossification increases the length of the bone

What type of ossification increases the width of the bone

The growth plate part of the long bone is known as the what

Which hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone

Which hormone stimulates bone formation

This is a lateral curvature of the spine

An exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine is known as what

This congenital or hereditary disease is known as brittle bone disease, it occurs with an abnormal development of type 1 collagen (most are autosomal dominant disorders), patient presents with multiple bone fractures and/or blueish tinge to the sclera

This congenital or hereditary disease is known as marble bone disease, it is caused by deficient  osteoclastic activity, and occurs as both autosomal recessive and dominant forms

An impaired maturation of cartilage in the developing growth plate that causes a major form of dwarfism and is the most common disorder growth plate, is known as what

This occurs when there is low bone mass micro – architectural deterioration

This is the most common bone disorder seen in the clinic, occurring in elderly, and mainly women

This type of osteoporosis has an unknown etiology but does appear to be caused by decreased estrogen, appears after the age of 30 with bone loss exceeding deposition, common with small frames rather than larger frames, and more common in Caucasians than blacks

This type of osteoporosis is caused by prescription drugs such as corticosteroids, can because by malignancies, malabsorption or in adequate intake of calcium phosphate or vitamin D, and can be caused by smoking and alcohol abuse

Osteomalacia of growing bones in children is known as which type of disorder

This is caused by a vitamin D deficiency, aluminum and some antacids that binds to phosphorus, hyperparathyroidism that leads to high serum calcium, low phosphorus, osteoclast breakdown bone and releases calcium into the blood, and promotes the loss of phosphorus blocking reabsorption from urine

Which type of bone tumors can metastasize from other tumors

What are the types of benign bone tumors

What are the types of malignant bone tumors

Which malignant bone tumor is more commonly seen between the ages of 10 to 25 years of age and most often involves the metaphysis of the long bones

Which malignant bone tumor is more commonly seen between the ages of 10 to 20 years of age and is typically found in the metaphysis of the long bone

Which malignant bone tumor is more commonly seen between the ages of 20 to 40 years of age

Which malignant bone tumor is more commonly seen between the ages of 35 to 60 years old

A fracture that heals solidly, without abnormal motion between fragments, but has angulation or displacement is known as a what

When a fracture heals with abnormal motion between fragments it is known as a what

What are the factors that promote fracture healing

What are the factors that impair fracture healing

Osteomyelitis in children is often associated with what

This type of infection can spread to bone infection of nearby joints tissue, can occur in IV drug users, infection causes swelling and increased pressure within bone as PMN arrive forming pus, and treatment typically involves IV antibiotics in surgery to drain the pus

a necrotic piece of bone in area of infection within chronic osteomyelitis is known as what

Surrounding an area of new bone formation in chronic osteomyelitis is what

A fracture through a diseased bone is known as what type of fracture

a fracture with an overlying laceration is known as what type of fracture

The most common malignant bone tumor in children is what

What is the most common form of joint disease that is common in everyone as we age

This is a chronic systemic autoimmune disorder, onset of symptoms is usually insidious, it is characterized by chronic symmetrical inflammation of joints, laboratory findings often nonspecific, and extra articular manifestations are anemia, pericarditis, episcleritis, and skin lesions

This occurs in rheumatoid arthritis patients where the extensor tendons cannot reach over  enlarged joints, so they go around the joints, what is this known as

This type of arthritis is caused by lyme disease that is transmitted to human via deer ticks, may occur weeks to months after a bite and is associated with a migrating skin rash, most often affects the knee and can be treated with antibiotic treatment that cures the arthritis

This is caused by a deposition of uric acid crystals in tissues, can be found in joints, subcutaneous tissue, and kidneys, it causes hyperuricemia which leads to uric acid renal stones

What is the most common cause of metabolic primary gout

What is the cause of renal primary gout

This type of gout has less inflammation and more bone deformities, is associated with painless subcutaneous deposits of uric acid mostly found on the ears, olecranon, and patella, hypertension is common with this type of gout and can further damage the kidneys, and some have uric acid kidney stone

A target like skin lesion and knee pain is associated with what

ulnar deviation is classical in this disorder

Which arthritis is due to chronic wear and tear

Which arthritis has extra articular symptoms

This is an autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular junction that is characterized by muscle weakness, where anti-bodies are directed against acetylcholine receptors

A patient comes into your clinic complaining of being easily fatigued and has muscle weakness, the symptoms usually are worse later in the day, and you notice that their eyelids often show proptosis. What do you suspect

This is a muscle disease and which muscle cells degenerate that result in marked weakness, may be inherited as autosomal or sex linked traits, differences between the dystrophies are based on mode of inheritance, age of onset, muscle groups initially expected, and severity of the disease

This is the most common muscular dystrophy

This disorder is caused by a defect in the gene for dystrophin, which normally maintains so integrity

a mother of a four-year-old pt is brought into your clinic with complaints that she notices her son has a waddling  gait that becomes uncontrollable, the patients mother notes that she has noticed severe muscle wasting and weakness of the respiratory muscles, what is your possible dx

What is the most common form of muscle weakness in children, and is an upper motor neuron disease

This type of myopathy results from chronic hypoperfusion of muscles and peripheral nerves

This type of myopathy is when anti-bodies to the tumor antigens cause an immune response that causes damage to the muscles

This is a necrosis of striated muscle due to either trauma, crush injury, electrical burn, compartment syndrome, ischemia – reperfusion, overuse or hypothermia, may result in over-use or swollen muscles

Tissue damage after establishing blood flow to an area that was previously deprived of blood flow is known as what type of injury

This can be caused by vascular trauma that leads to ischemia – reperfusion that eventually leads to swelling, long bone fractures that lead to swelling, or intraosseous needle for infusing fluids

How is compartment syndrome prevented and treated

If you have a patient with proptosis with sustained upward gaze what do you think the disorder is

This disorder results in myoglobinurea

This disorder can be discovered by amniocentesis

This disorder is caused by antibiotic is against the acetylcholine receptors

Pseudo – hypertrophy of calf muscles is known in which disorder

In soft tissue calcifications, explain dystrophic calcification

In soft tissue calcification, explain metastatic calcification

This type of ossification is when there is bone formation in soft tissues, and can be caused after trauma or surgery of joints or long bones

This causes bone formation in areas of muscle injury or inflammation

Inflammation of a muscle is known as what

This is a malignant mesenchymal neoplasm with skeletal muscle differentiation and is the most common sarcoma in the pediatric population

A common, benign well circumscribed neoplasm of smooth muscle is known as what

What is the most common type of leiomyoma

A malignant smooth muscle tumor is known as what

What is the most common place for leiomyosarcoma's

What is the second most common sarcoma of adults

Soft tissue calcification after healing is known as what

A common benign fatty tumor is known as what

Temporary dysfunction of the facial nerve or cranial nerve VII is known as what

What are the clinical signs of a basilar skull fracture involving the eye

What are the clinical signs of a basilar skull fracture involving the ear

What are the clinical signs of a basilar skull fracture involving the nose

What type of skull fracture is a straight line

What type of skull fracture has pieces pushing in toward the brain

What type of skull fracture has an overlying laceration

with increased ICP what is Cushing's triad

An accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater is known as what

A patient comes to see you reporting they had a loss of consciousness and then regained consciousness and now are having severe headaches what could you expect to be happening

This is an accumulation of blood between the Dura and the arachnoid where the brain itself is injured by blunt trauma

What are the lateralizing signs of a subdural hematoma

What is caused by injury to middle meningeal artery from a temporal fracture

Which is caused by injury to the brain itself

What are the two signs of a brain herniation

What is the term for unequal pupils

Bleeding between the arachnoid membrane and pia mater is known as what

What is a clinical sign of a subarachnoid hemorrhage

What are the causes of a subarachnoid hemorrhage

These are small aneurysms often found in the circle of Willis

This type of aneurysm is sometimes associated with polycystic kidney disease and the patient will present with a sudden severe headache, vomiting followed by coma

These type of aneurysms usually involve larger cerebral arteries, usually the vertebral, basilar, and internal carotid arteries. These fibrose and might not rupture but they do provide a site for a thrombus to form, leading to an ischemic stroke

This is caused by a contusion/hematoma in the brain, with bleeding from ruptured intracerebral vessels

Which area of the brain recognizes the meaning of words

Which area of the brain is used for speech and is usually on the left side

What are the clinical characteristics of a cerebrovascular disease

Which type of stroke is more common, is caused by a thrombosis that causes gradual onset of symptoms, and an embolism causes abrupt cerebral dysfunction, a rapid CT is needed to rule out hemorrhagic stroke

This type of stroke is caused from high blood pressure or ruptured aneurysms

What are the two types of strokes

Which type of stroke is caused by an embolus or a thrombus

Which type of stroke is caused by bleeding into the brain

Which type of stroke is treated with a fibrinolytic

Which type of brain tumors do not metastasize

Which type of brain tumors can still cause much harm and death

Most primary brains cancers are what

And abnormal neuron firing in the brain can cause what

Recurrent seizures due to abnormal biochemical/electrical activity in the brain are known as well

This metabolic abnormality is due to a lack of vitamin B1 (thiamine), is caused by chronic alcoholism, malabsorption, or bariatric surgery

What are the symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy

This is due to a high neonatal bilirubin, child might need speech therapy, physical therapy for hypertonia, or cochlear implants

Involuntary repetitive eye movements either horizontal, vertical, rotatory, or mixed is known as what

This is caused by an injury to the brain before, during or after birth. the child will have muscle tightness or spasms, gait disturbance or other motor disturbances, abnormal sensation and perception, site, hearing, or speech impairment, and maybe seizures

Destruction of oligodendroglial cells which surround the nerve fibers in the brain leads to what

This typically affects the white matter of the brain and is presumed to be autoimmune, and destroys of the oligodendroglial cells which surround brain nerve fibers

what is the most common autoimmune CNS disease

What are the sensory and motor abnormalities of multiple sclerosis

Which diagnostic study is useful in confirming the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis

What is an autoimmune disorder involving demyelination of peripheral nerves

What are some signs or symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome

This is a form of dementia with unknown etiology, there are deposits of beta amyloid in plaques and vessels in the cerebral cortex. The microtubule proteins form neurofibril tangles, and it is a progressive neurologic disorder

This is due to a loss of pigmented neurons in substantial Niagara, they are neurons that control muscle activity. The patient has a slowness of voluntary muscular movement and a resting tremor of the hands, Cogwell rigility is found on the physical exam, face will gradually lose expressiveness/might drool, and patient often has depression and dementia

This is an autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the caudate nucleus in motor cortex, patient presents with motor disturbances including involuntary gyrating movement of trunk and limb, postural instability, rigidity, progressive dementia, and abnormal behavior

This is due to a loss of motor neurons in the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, midbrain, and eventually the cerebral cortex, it results in muscle wasting and weakness but intellect is not affected

Which neurodegenerative disorders have memory loss, amyloid plaques, and neurofibril tangles

Which neurodegenerative disorder involves a movement disorder such as cogwheel rigidity, pill rolling and has decreased dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

Which neurodegenerative disorder includes the triad of motor, cognitive, behavioral problems. It is autosomal dominant and includes the caudate nucleus and cerebral cortex

Which neurodegenerative disorder includes a movement disorder of weakness and fasciculations, and a loss of motor neurons in the spinal cord, medulla, and cerebral cortex

This occurs when there is purulent exudate that forms along the meninges, the most common organisms are group B streptococci and E. coli, Haemophilus influenza, streptococcus pneumonia, neisseira meningitidis

A patient presents to the clinic with a headache, vomiting, fever, altered mental status, and possibly having a seizure. You notice that the patient has nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign, and Brudzinski's sign, what do you think their diagnosis is

This is usually seen in children and young adults, the common pathogens are coxsackievirus B, echovirus, mumpd, Epstein-Barr virus, or herpes, the patient presents with headaches, vomiting and a fever has a positive Brudzinski and Kernig sign and also new nuchal rigidity

This is nearly nearly always a fatal type of encephalitis, the virus is transmitted by saliva of infected animal and travels via peripheral nerves to the CNS

What is the name for nearsighted patients

What is the name for farsighted patients

This is related to irregularity of the cornea or lens

Farsightedness of old age, where the lens is not able to accommodate for near vision is known as what

unequal pull of extra ocular muscles is known as what

If you have clear mucus and suspect conjunctivitis which type of conjunctivitis is it

If you have sticky pus and suspect conjunctivitis which type of conjunctivitis is it

This is when conjunctivitis infections extends into the cornea

What is the major cause of blindness in underdeveloped countries

A blocked tear duct, plus haemphilus, staff, strep causes what

Inflammation of the eyelid, accompanied by redness and swelling that is caused by staff aureus is known as what

A blockage of a meibomian gland that is not infected is known as what

Infection of the hair follicle or sweat gland caused by staff aureus in the eye is known as what

This is a bad inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, is caused by trauma and the patient presents to you with pain and photophobia what is it

Demyelination of the optic nerve by either an autoimmune disorder or multiple sclerosis is known as what

Blood in the anterior chamber is known as what

Bleeding in the orbit from trauma, anticoagulation, or other disorders that increases the pressure risking the optic nerve is known as what

What is the most common type of cataract

A defect in the formation and circulation of aqueous humor that leads to increased intraocular pressure is known as what

Which form of glaucoma is due to a chronic and impaired absorption; intraocular pressure slowly increases

Which form of glaucoma presents with painful red eye and vision loss; increased intraocular pressure only during the attack

Which type of eye disorder is treated by a phakectomy

Which eye problem is treated by a lateral canthotomy

This is a defect causing loss of central vision and a grid is used to test for this

When the retinal pulls away from the back of eye caused by trauma or bleeding, and a patient may see floaters or flashes of light is known as a what

Swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure is known as what

This is a malignant tumor of the eye, it is inherited genetically and often involves both eyes, and a small child presents with a white pupil is known as a what

What causes dark pigment spots in the retina

Opacification of the lens causes what

Name a cancer of the skeletal muscles of the eye

Prolonged high concentration of oxygen in a newborn can cause what

Night blindness is associated with which deficiency

This is a pearly white appearance in the ear, it is not cancer but a benign tumor and is caused by a birth defect or a chronic infection, there is negative pressure in the middle year that pulls in the squamous cells, forming a cyst

This disease can be mild to severe with episodic vertigo that last one to several hours, has sensori–neural hearing loss for low-frequency sounds, and tinnitus. There are hydrops and endolymphatic systems of the cochlea and may be caused by an imbalance of pressures between compartments of the inner ear

This type of hearing loss is usually from the external or middle ear due to a foreign body, cerumen, or otitis media

This type of hearing loss is due to cochlear abnormalities due to repetitive noise trauma

This type of hearing loss is due to old age

This is the least common type of hearing loss and it is due to lesions of the cranial nerve VIII – acoustic neuroma

This type of hearing loss is due to loud sudden impulse sounds or loud repetitive sounds, can also cause tinnitus, and sounds greater than 85 dB can cause hearing loss

A patient comes in complaining of bilateral hearing loss that is worse in one ear, has a family history of hearing loss which often begins between the ages of 30 to 40, it is an autosomal dominant disorder where bone deposits occur on both sides of the oval window

This is a benign slow-growing tumor of the nerve sheath of the acoustic nerve that causes hearing loss, tinnitus, and a balance disorder. If large enough, it can cause cranial nerve VII deficit