Exam 4 Chapter 22

  1. Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system?

    D) pharynx
  2. Which of the following is considered part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system?

    A) Pneumocystis jiroveci
  3. The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this bacterium's 

    E) Lancefield antigen
  4. Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spreat through tissues by breaking down blood clots?

    E) streptokinase
  5. Which of the following is associated with some cases of streptococcal pharyngitis?

    E) acute glomerulonephritis, scarlet fever and rheumatic fever
  6. Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors decreases leukocyte movement into an infected area?

    D) C5a peptidase
  7. Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by

    A) beta hemolytic activity
  8. What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

    C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
  9. The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by 

    A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  10. V shapes and palisade arrangements are characteristic of which of the following?

    D) Corynebacterium diptheriae
  11. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diptheria?

    D) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin
  12. Diptheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?

    E) protein synthesis
  13. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold?

    A) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites
  14. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection?

    E) legionellosis
  15. Which of the following is extremely fastidious in it nutrient requirements, which include iron salts and cysteine?

    E) Legionella pneumophila
  16. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?

    C) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months
  17. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by

    C) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea
  18. Bordetella pertussis produces

    B) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins
  19. The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases?

    E) pertussis
  20. Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because

    D) the anthrax toxin triggers edema of the lungs
  21. Influenzaviruses are exhibiting increased resistance to which of the following drugs?

    A) amantadine
  22. The CDC reports concern about a new influenza strain designated A/Bali/2/2010 (H5N2). This nomenclature means

    C) the virus is a type A with antigens HA 5 and NA 2 isolated in Bali in February 2010
  23. The typical signs and syptoms of flu are a result of

    D) cytokines released as part of the immune response
  24. Coronaviruses cause

    D) both the common cold and SARS
  25. Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they

    D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission
  26. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

    B) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract
  27. Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?

    C) respiratory syncytial virus
  28. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

    D) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall
  29. Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling

    C) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
  30. Blastomycosis results from

    B) inhalation of fungal spores
  31. Coccidioides germinates in the alveoli into a form called a(n)

    E) spherule
  32. Which of the following is the most common fungal systemic disease in humans?

    C) histoplasmosis
  33. Which of the following diseases is almost diagnostic for AIDS?

    E) Pneumocystis pneumonia
  34. Pneumocystis jiroveci is

    C) a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans
  35. Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by

    D) Chlamydophilia psittaci
  36. A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results?

    E) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine
  37. The majority of cases of otitis media are caused by

    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  38. Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

    D) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan
  39. A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram-stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?

    E) Hantavirus
  40. A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted?

    B) ornithosis
  41. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  42. The seriousness of Coccidioides infections can be attributed to the cycle of formation and rupture of spherules.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  43. Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  44. Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  45. Microscopic evaluation of suitable specimens is a useful way of diagnosing histoplasmosis.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  46. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  47. Anti-influenza drugs are effective at any stage of the disease.
    A) True
    B) False
    B) False
  48. Specimens suspected to contain Bodetella pertussis must be inoculated onto appropriate media at the patient's bedside.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  49. BCG vaccine is composed of attenuated Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
  50. Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because these areas are either too warm or too acidic.
    A) True
    B) False
    A) True
Card Set
Exam 4 Chapter 22
Exam 4 Chapter 22