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1. What is the engines shaft horsepower rating?
A: 1100
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2. How does air enter the engine?
A: Through the rear
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3. What are the two engine sections?
A: Gas generator and power turbine
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4. What is the capacity of the oil system?
A: 18 quarts (18.5 mod)
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5. Oil level must be serviced to MAX HOT within ___ minutes.
A: 30
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6. The red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate when the oil pressure falls below:
A: 40 psi with engine above idle, 15 psi at idle
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7. What is the propeller operating speed?
A: 2000 rpm
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8. With the PMU functioning the mechanical overspeed governor limits Np to:
A: below 106%
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9. The electronic governor will maintain Np below:
A: 100%
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10. If the PMU is off the mechanical overspeed governor will limit Np to:
A: 100±2
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11. What is the position of the propeller if the engine fails and the PCL is out of cutoff?
A: It will eventually feather
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12. The PMU receives its power from?
A: the PMA
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13. N1 is _____ in ground mode and _________ in flight mode.
A: 60%, 67%
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14. Why would the PMU abort a start?
A: Hot, hung, or no start.
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15. Prior to reaching High key maintain a minimum of ____ knots.
A: 125
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15. High key is located ___ way down the runway at ______ feet agl.
A: 1/3, 3,000, 2,500 minimum
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16. The target altitude and airspeed for low key is:
A: 1500 feet agl 120 knots
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17. Base key is ____ feet agl.
A: 600-800
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18. For no wind planning, the aircraft should glide ____ miles for every _____ feet of
- altitude lost.
- A: 2, 1,000
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19. Expect to lose ____feet for a 30˚ bank turn, _____ feet for a 45˚ bank turn, and _____
- feet for a 60˚ bank turn.
- A: 2,000, 1,500, 1,000
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20. Intercept final a minimum of ______ feet from the intended point of touchdown
A: 1000
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21. Maintain ____ knots on final until beginning the transition to landing.
A: 110
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22. Do not slow below ___ knots until over a suitable landing area.
A: 95
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23. What is the difference between a PEL and an SFL?
A: Power is available for a PEL
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24. What is the recommended weather for a forced landing?
A: 2,000, 3
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25. What is the glide ratio for a high speed ELP?
A: 1:1
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26. When should you switch to Eastside frequency?
A: passing last row of T-6s or T-38s
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27. Is it acceptable to overshoot the extended runway centerline during VFR conditions
A: No
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28: What are the specs of the PMA?
A: 32VAC
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29. If the PMA fails where does the PMU receive power?
A: 28V Batt Buss
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1. What is the maximum crosswind component for T-6 full stops? Touch and Go’s? Solo/Formation Wing? Wet? Ice?
A: 25; A: 20; A: 15; A: 10; A: 5.
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2. When must an IP acknowledge the students “gear clear” call prior to the student raising the gear?
A: presolo contact sorties
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3. When the crosswind exceeds ____ knots, aircrews should use UP or TO flaps.
A: 10
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4. LDG flaps should be used for full stop landings when landing distance is greater than or equal to _____ of runway length.
A: 80%
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5. On a low approach how low are you authorized to go before initiating a go-around?
A: do not allow the aircraft to touch down
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6. When a restricted low approach is directed how low are you allowed to descend?
A: 500 AGL or as specified by the controller
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