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1. T/F Position of the Interseat sequencing system can be monitored from the FCP?
A: False
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2. Name all the systems that have to be visually or verbally confirmed from the FCP?
A: Auxiliary battery, manual fuel balance L/R switch, environmental control system, parking brake position, emergency gear extension, and altimeter setting of front cockpit.
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3. How can the bleed air inflow be checked from the RCP?
A: Pressing the G-suit test button.
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4. How can you confirm OBOGS operation from the RCP?
A: Turning off the supply lever
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5. Accomplish a G-awareness turn on any sortie that may require more than how many Gs?
A: 3
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6. At what airspeed is the Gx flown?
A: 200-220; how many G’s? A: 4; how many breathing cycles? A: 3-4
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7. For advanced aerobatics and formation training the G-awareness turns should be flown to G-loads of?
A: 4-5 Gs
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8. Do not shut down the engine in flight if it is producing usable torque unless?
A: it is confirmed on fire, vibrations indicate impeding failure or not required for recovery to the selected emergency field.
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9. Do not restart the engine if what circumstances occur?
A: Fire/FOD/Frozen
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10. Taxi how fast in a congested area?
A: 5-7 knots
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11. Taxi speed in an uncongested area should not exceed?
A: 15 knots
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12. Differential braking with the NWS engaged should be avoided to preclude?
A: damage to the nose gear
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13. During the Over Speed Governor check a technique is to keep the control stick ______ to prevent the nose gear strut from compressing?
A: neutral to slightly aft position
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14. Do not accomplish after landing checklist items until when?
A: safe taxi speed and clear of the runway
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1. What is the primary source of power for the PMU?
A: the PMA
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2. What sort of power does the PMA provide?
A: 32 VAC
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3. In ground mode, idle is _____ and approximately ______ in flight mode.
A: 60%, 67%
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4. Above ______ feet MSL the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to avoid stress on the propeller during spins.
A: 10,000
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5. Is the automatic shutdown feature provided by the PMU available in flight mode?
A: No
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6. The PMU will go offline when the IOAT exceeds _____?
A: 121C
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7. What is the purpose of the bob weight in the elevator control system?
A: To provide feedback to the pilot at an increased level
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8. T or F: It is not necessary to pulse the trim at high airspeeds.
A: F
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9. What are the four factors that act as a function of the Trim Aid?
A: Engine torque, indicated airspeed, pressure altitude, and pitch rate
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10. Lowering the speed brake at high airspeeds will produce a slight pitch in which direction?
A: Up
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11. Does the elevator automatically trim during Speed brake operation?
A: Yes
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12. Can you normally extend the flaps and speed brake simultaneously?
A: No
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13. What are the four factors that effect glide performance? A: airspeed, aircraft configuration (gear and flaps), angle of bank, and coordinated or uncoordinated flight.
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14. Best glide speed in a clean configuration is approximately _____?
A: 125 KIAS
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15. At best glide, what can you expect your sink rate to be?
A: 1350 ft/min
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16. In an engine out situation, how can the flaps be lowered?
A: Normally, after the landing gear has been extended using the emergency system.
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17. What power setting approximates the performance of an aircraft with a feathered prop?
A: 4-6%
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18. What is the margin of artificial stall warning during a power-off unaccelerated condition?
A: 5-10 knots above stall speed
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19. When does natural stall warning occur during power off conditions?
A: 3 knots above stall speed
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20. Above what torque setting might full right rudder and full right aileron not prevent a left roll off at stall?
A: 60%
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21. Does speed brake extension effect stall characteristics?
A: No
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22. What are the correct steps for stall recovery?
A: Reduce angle of attack, Advance PCL, Roll wings level, Increase back pressure
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