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Legal and Ethical

  1. "Let the master answer" describes the legal doctrine:
    a. res ipsa loquitur
    b. respondeat superior
    c. res judicata
    d. non suis juris
    b. respondeat superior
  2. A consent is not required if that patient is:
    a. a minor
    b. elderly
    c. incompetent
    d. unconscious and critically
    d. unconscious and critically
  3. If a patient refuses consent to treatment, the medical assistant should:
    a. coerce the patient into consenting
    b.explain that refusing consent will result in termination of care
    c. delay treatment and consult with the health care provider
    d. dismiss the patient and schedule another appointment
    c. delay treatment and consult with the health care provider
  4. Failing to act when one has the duty to act describes the tort:
    a. nonfeasance
    b. misfeasance
    c. malfeasance
    d. negligence
    a. nonfeasance
  5. Defamation of character employing the written word describes:
    a. invasion of privacy
    b. slander
    c. libel
    d. fraud
    c. libel
  6. Disclosing unpleasant information to a patient is best supported by the ethical concept of:
    a. veracity
    b. non malfeasance
    c. justice
    d. duty
    a. veracity
  7. Negligence requires the following elements EXCEPT:
    a. inconvenience
    b. duty
    c. causation
    d. damage
    a. inconvenience
  8. Confidentiality is ethically supported by the concept of:
    a. beneficence
    b. on malfeasance
    c. fidelity
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  9. A standard or principle that guides our behavior regarding what is right and what is wrong is a(n):
    a. norm
    b. moral
    c. morale
    d. ethic
    b. moral
  10. Positive character traits are:
    a. duties
    b. virtues
    c. morale
    d. ethic
    b. virtues
  11. All of following are reasons for revocation or suspension of a health care provider's license EXCEPT:
    a. conviction of a crime
    b. unprofessional conduct
    c. administering atypical treatments
    d. physical incapacity
    c. administering atypical treatments
  12. Behavior or an action that can be reasonably presumed to be consensual is:
    a. express consent
    b. implied consent
    c. informed consent
    d. self-determination
    b. implied consent
  13. Confidentiality is legally supported by the:
    a. privacy act
    b. self-determination act
    c. standards of care act
    d. health care quality imporvement act
    a. privacy act
  14. Informed consent is most related to the concept of:
    a. justice
    b. autonomy
    c. role fidelity
    d. code of ethics
    d. code of ethics
  15. A civil wrong committed against other persons of their property is:
    a. a tort
    b. a breach of contract
    c. malpractice
    d. a breach of contract
    a. a tort
  16. An argument supporting not disclosing unplesant information to a patient for his own good is:
    a. veracity
    b. duty
    c. deception
    d. benevolent deception
    d. benevolent deception
  17. A health-care provider who guarantees the outcome of a course of treatment may be in jeopardy of committing:
    a. a tort
    b.  a breach of contract
    c. negligence
    d. malpractice
    b. a breach of contract
  18. A malingerer of hypochondriac may be inappropriately labeled a:
    a. crock
    b. gork
    c. GOMER
    d. gimp
    a. crock
  19. Neglience of a professional person is known as:
    a. nonfeasance
    b. misfeasance
    c. malfeasance
    d. malpractice
    d. malpractice
  20. Which of the following will most likely promote the perception of professional competence?
    a. behaving in a nonchalant manner
    b. lack of eye contact
    c. appearing confident
    d. poor enunciation
    c. appearing confident
  21. The least serious degree of negliegence is:
    a. a minor
    b. ordinary
    c. inconsequential
    d. misdemeanor
    b. ordinary
  22. A document serving to appoint an individual, chosen by the patient to represent the patient's interest is a(n):
    a. advance directive
    b. living will
    c. durable power of attorney
    d. subpoena duces tecum
    c. durable power of attorney
  23. The principle that the provider has a professional obligation to care for a patient is known as:
    a.  duty
    b. dereliction of duty
    c. direct causation
    d. due care
    a. duty
  24. An article supporting euthanasia is:
    a. fidelity
    b. self-determination
    c. justice
    d. duty
    b. self-determination
  25. In most states, there is no legal duty to rescue victims EXCEPT:
    a. family members
    b. innocent bystanders
    c. if you witness the accident
    d. helpless young children
    a. family members
  26. Manipulating the genes of offspring through either breeding or alteration is known as:
    a. euthanasia
    b. eupnoea
    c.  eugenics
    d. eupraxia
    c. eugenics
  27. Law developed an enforced by government  agencies best describe:
    a. common law
    b. statutory law
    c. administrative law
    d. constitutional law
    c. administrative law
  28. Which of the following is considered a mandatory credential?
    a. registration
    b. certification
    c. licensure
    d. accreditation
    c. licensure
  29. In order for consent to be informed, which of the following elements should be present?
    a. nature of the patient's condition
    b. nature and purpose of the proposed treatment
    c. risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  30. A health care provider is required to report the folowing to the appropriate local agencies EXCEPT:
    a. strep throat
    b. cholera
    c. tuberculosis
    d. AIDS
    a. strep throat
  31. Which of the following charting situations may create liabilty?
    a. failing to properly document care
    b. scribbling out errors
    c. using white out
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  32. Which of the following is considered an interntional tort?
    a. negligence defamation
    b. malpractice
    c. misfeasance
    a. negligence defamation
  33. The AMA Code of Ethics subscribers to whihc of the following general principles?
    a. respect for persons
    b. confidentiality
    c. work within one's scope of practice
    d.  all of the above
    d. all of the above
  34. " to do no harm" best describes:
    a. nonmaleficence
    b. beneficence
    c. fidelity
    d. veracity
    a. nonmaleficence
  35. A defense against malpractice may include acts of independent agent that stand in the way of the casual connection between negligent acts and the damage suffered. This is called:
    a.tolling the statue of limitations
    b. intervening cause
    c. contributory negligence
    d. comparative negligence
    b. intervening cause
  36. What are the three parts of a contract?
    a. offer, acceptance, renegotiation
    b. offer, counter offer, acceptance
    c. offer, acceptance, consideration
    d. offer, refusal, consideration
    b. offer, counter offer, acceptance
  37. There are many degrees of felonies. Which is the most serious?
    a. first
    b. second
    c. third
    d. they are all equal
    a. first
  38. Which legislative act protects healthcare workers from liability when they provide first aid in an emergency situation?
    a. good samaritan act
    b. patient's bill of right
    c. occupational safety and health act (OSHA)
    d. red cross act
    a. good samaritan act
  39. Which of these is NOT an intentional tort?
    a. fraud
    b. battery
    c. assault
    d. shoplifting
    d. shoplifting
  40. Which of these is NOT one of the four D's of negligence?
    a. duty
    b. direct cause
    c. duplicity
    d. damages
    c. duplicity
  41. If a physician does not follow the proper steps to end the physician-patient contract, he/she may be charged with:
    a. professional liability
    b. patient abandonment
    c. termination of contract
    d. assumption of risk
    b. patient abandonment
  42. To write derogatory words about a patient, is known as:
    a. slander
    b. libel
    c. ethical
    d. unethical
    a. slander
  43. An informed consent requires:
    a. verbal confirmation
    b. the purpose and risks of the proposed treatment
    c. spousal agreement
    d. MA's signature
    b. the purpose and risks of the proposed treatment
  44. The patient self-determination Act of 1990 was enacted:
    a. to prevent MDs from owing multiple laboratories or nursing homes
    b. to require documentation of an Advance Directive from each client
    c. to presrve all clients rights to accept/ reject medical care
    d. to ensure open financial reporting from Nursing Homes
    c. to preserve all clients rights to accept/reject medical care
  45. Negligence is defined as:
    a. threatening someone with agression
    b. unlawfully restraining somene against their will
    c. failure to provide a known standard of care
    d. requires a minimum of a one year jail sentence
    c. failure to provide a known standard of care
Author
ripmom30
ID
221830
Card Set
Legal and Ethical
Description
study for CCMA
Updated

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