RADT162_final

  1. Which agency approved to incorporate venipuncture into the curriculum guide?



    B) ASRT
  2. Which of the following concepts will define employment activities, education, and professional experience?



    D) scope of practice
  3. Any radiographer who performs venipuncture and/or administers drugs through an IV line will NOT be subjected to malpractice lawsuits.
    False
  4. Arteries carry blood to the heart.
    False
  5. Small final branches of the artery are called ___.
    arterioles
  6. The blood vessels which exchange blood and tissue constituents are called ___.



    A) capillary
  7. Which vessel is described as having tributaries?



    B) vein
  8. The tunica intima layer of the blood vessel is called ___.



    A) internal coat
  9. The middle layer of the blood vessel is a layer of ___.



    B) visceral muscle
  10. The ___ vein ascends along the posteromedial surface of the forearm and winds anteriorly below the elbow.
    basilic
  11. Which vein will join the basilic below the elbow?



    C) medial antebrachial
  12. Which vein ascends along the anterolateral surface of the forearm and arm?



    D) cephalic
  13. The ___ veins are located in the hand and join the cephalic vein.
    superficial
  14. Specific characteristics of contrast media are determined by the number of particular molecules and ___ attached to the iodine atom.



    D) type of side chains
  15. Which type of cation is used in an ionic monomer?



    B) meglumine
  16. The distrubution and movement of water between body compartments are called ___.



    D) osmosis
  17. The contrast agent Isovue is a non-ionic monomer.
    True
  18. The osmolality of human blood is ___ mOsm/kg.



    C) 300
  19. Contrast medium with higher osmolality will have fewer adverse patient reactions.
    False
  20. What cation will produce a contrast medium with a higher viscosity?



    A) meglumine
  21. Gadolinium is a non-paramagnetic atomic element.
    False
  22. Which type of patient will experience a three-fold likelihood of experiencing an adverse reaction to contrast media?



    B) asthmatic
  23. Severe contrast media reactions occur in approximately 1 of every ___ cases.



    A) 14,000
  24. Iodinated contrast media can cause the following adverse effects except:



    D) addictive
  25. Clinical manifestations of a toxic effect of contrast media includes: vomiting, nausea, seizures, ___.



    B) gastrointestinal edema
  26. Vasovagal responses are treated by placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
    True
  27. The medications that are used to treat nonresponsive urticaria are:



    A) benedryl and epinephrine
  28. The most common mild anxiety-related cardiovascular response to contrast media is bradycardia.
    False
  29. An intermediate response, to contrast media, of the CNS includes aphasia and ___.
    amblyophia
  30. Atropine sulfate is the drug used in the treatment of hypotension and bradycardia.
    True
  31. Benedryl and ___ are the medications used for intermediate cutaneous responses to contrast media.
    epinephrine
  32. Respiratory responses which include sneezing, wheezing, coughing and rhinorrhea requires epinephrine for treatment.
    False
  33. Which of the following is not a common post-procedural protocol for contrast media administration?



    B) document patient weight
  34. Microorganisms causing infectious diseases are classified as which of the following?



    B) pathogenic
  35. Which of the following is not a type of indirect disease transmission?



    D) touching
  36. The common cold is an example of an infection by which of the following?



    B) virus
  37. Which term best describes the absolute removal of all life forms?



    C) sterilization
  38. A health care worker is accidentally punctured with a contaminated needle. This type of transmission is known as which of the following?



    B) fomite
  39. Some pathogens aid in digestion and skin preservation.
    False
  40. What is the most common means of spreading infection?



    D) human hands
  41. What is the term for objects that have been in contact with pathogenic organisms?



    D) fomites
  42. Since the radiographers are exposed to many pathogens during the course of the day, the radiographer who works when his or her resistance is low because of fatigue, stress, or a low-grade infection has increased susceptibility as a host.
    True
  43. The radiographer must use strict infection-control measures that include blood and body fluid precautions.



    A) for every patient who enters the radiology department
  44. Blood and body fluid precautions include:



    A) use of clean, disposable gloves for contact of the hands with blood or body fluids, a mask, and a gown.
  45. The most common means of spreading infection are:



    D) the human hands
  46. A patient who is known to have AIDS is to be your patient. Isolation precautions that you should take are:



    A) follow universal blood and body fluid precautions
  47. When caring for a patient that you know to be infected with HIV who doesn't have AIDS, the imaging professional uses universal blood and body fluid precautions and...


    C) keeps all information concerning the patient confidential
  48. Only 16% of reported AIDS cases have involved contraction in the health care workplace.
    False
  49. According the Universal Precautions List, saliva, and sputum are considered noninfectious body fluids.
    True
  50. The most common method of spreading AIDS virus is by:



    C) direct contact
  51. Which of the following radiologic exams will not be a potential danger for contact with the patient's body fluids?



    D) paranasal sinuses
  52. A patient's level of consciousness is evaluated using the:



    C) Glasgow coma test
  53. Symptoms of a partially obstructed airway include labored, noisy breathing.
    True
  54. Respiratory failure may result from all of the following except:



    A) flatulence
  55. The amount of time to determine pulselessness is:



    D) 5-10 seconds
  56. For adult cardiac compression, the ___ of the sternum is compressed.


    A) lower half
  57. The manual resuscitation bag is used for mouth-to-mouth ventilation for patients with a communicable disease.
    a) True
  58. Which of the following is a strong alkalinizing agent prescribed following cardiac arrest?



    A) sodium bicarbonate
  59. Dopamine should be delivered only via which of the following?



    D) intravenous injection
  60. Which drug is prescribed to convert a premature ventricular contraction to normal sinus rhythm?



    C) lidocaine
  61. Which wave will trace the contraction of the ventricles?



    D) QRS complex
  62. The sinus rhythm in which the heart rate ranges from 100-150 beats per minute?



    D) sinus tachycardia
  63. Which condition will cause six PVCs to appear in a row?



    A) ventricular tachycardia
  64. The asystole tracing is a straight line.
    True
  65. The resting stage for the ventricles is displayed as the _ wave.
    T
  66. Neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution is termed:



    A) negligence
  67. For a radiographer or imaging professional to be found negligent in court, the civil proceedings must establish the following elements except:



    B) carelessness
  68. A radiographer or imaging professional's failure to perform proper venipuncture technique for contrast media administration would be considered failure of which of the four elements that contribute to negligent acts?



    C) injury
  69. Which of the four elements that contribute to negligent acts would apply if the radiographer or imaging professional performs venipuncture and injects contrast media, and immediately leaves the room, the patient has a severe adverse reaction to the contrast media and falls off of the imaging table?



    C) cause
  70. A radiographer who fails to act reasonably and prudently is considered to be negligent in the eyes of the law.
    True
  71. Ethical malpractice includes violations which fall below the standard of care.
    False
  72. The doctrine of informed consent will reassure patient ___.



    A) autonomy
  73. An informed consent must indicate the nature of the procedure, any risks complications and ___.



    C) alternatives
Author
jb4nto
ID
220033
Card Set
RADT162_final
Description
RADT162 Final
Updated