CL300 Q&A

  1. The minimum pavement width for a 180o turn with a 5ft margin of safety is:
  2. The aircraft may be towed up to a limit of _____ of nosewheel angle with the torque links connected and the nosewheel steering control system deenergized.
  3. At what degree of nosewheel angle will the nose landing gear swivel pins shear?
    Approximately 123o
  4. How is the passenger door normally closed?
  5. The Purpose of the vent flap in the cabin door handle is:
    To equalize cabin pressure to ambient pressure
  6. Under what condition does a PASSENGER DOOR caution (amber) CAS message display when the aircraft is on the ground and the door is not fully secured?
    The left engine RUN switch is in the RUN position
  7. Under what condition does the PASSENGER DOOR caution (amber) CAS message display when the aircraft is in flight?
    The passenger door rollers are not fully engaged into the fitting guides
  8. What is the indication if the aircraft is on the ground and the cargo door is open?
    With the left engine run switch in RUN, a CARGO DOOR caution (amber) CAS message is displayed
  9. The AC inverters provide power for:
    Passenger conveniences only
  10. Individual battery voltage can be read on:
    The electrical synoptic page
  11. The generators come online:
    Automatically with engines running and ground power deactivated
  12. When are the auxiliary buses load shed:
    In flight, with only on generator operative
  13. What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight:
    The essential and battery buses
  14. When does the green AVAIL light illuminate on the electrical control panel:
    When the GPU voltage and polarity is correct
  15. Selecting the battery switch to the ON position:
    Connects the batteries to their respective essential buses
  16. The DC power centers provide the following except for:
    Power for loads in the front section of the aircraft
  17. The secondary power centers provide power for the following except:
    Loads in the aft section of the aircraft
  18. The engine indicating and crew alerting system (EICAS) provides all of the following except:
    Integration of standby instrument system information
  19. Which of the following denotes normal status of a component or no flow through the line?
  20. Which of the following denotes component failure (no flow, energy or pressure)?
  21. On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indication to what color?
  22. Which EICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and flashing master caution lights?
    Caution (amber)
  23. Which EICAS Message require prompt action?
    Caution (amber)
  24. How are CAS messages prioritized on the MFD display?
    By order of importance and order of occurrence
  25. Selected EICAS messages are inhibited for takeoff when:
    Airspeed is above 80 knots and continues until the aircraft reaches 400ft AGL or oneminute elapses
  26. How does the pilot select a synoptic page to display on an MFD?
    By selecting the individual system switch on the MFD control panel (MCP)
  27. The aural warning panel is located:
    On the right aft cockpit bulkhead above the circuit breaker panel
  28. Normal takeoff thrust flat rated to ISA +15oC at sea level for the Honeywell AS907 engine is:
    6,826 pounds
  29. The engine run/off switches perform which of the following functions:
    Turn on the fuel DC boost-pump
  30. During a normal start cycle, engine rotation is achieved by:
    Bleed air pressure from the APU, opposite engine bleed air, or GPU
  31. During a normal start sequence, when does the start valve close and the ATS (air turbine starter) disengage?
    46% N2
  32. What are the maximum consecutive start cycles allowed prior to a required 15 minute cooling period?
  33. How long must the engine be motored (cranked) after an aborted engine start?
    30 seconds
  34. APR thrust is indicated on the associated N1 gage by:
    Cyan APR icon
  35. When low engine oil pressure is detected, the digital readout changes to:
  36. When N1 or N2 sync is selected, the engines are synchronized if both engines are in the CRZ or CLB rating and the N1 difference between the two engines is within:
  37. Manually selecting the ignition switch to ON is recommended:
    During flight through moderate or heavy intensity turbulence
  38. What are the cockpit indications for a normal TR deployment?
    White REV icon followed by green REV icon
  39. Which of the following is not a function of the Honeywell 36-150BD APU?
    Automatic variable intake door
  40. The primary function of the APU is:
    To provide power for the gearbox-mounted generator
  41. The APU emergency shutoff switch is located:
    Right side, aft of wing, adjacent to external power connector
  42. The _______ controls airflow
    to the bleed system and protects the APU from an overtemperature condition:
    APU bleed valve
  43. When does the ECU command the APU surge control valve to open?
    When the APU is supplying electrical loads, at flight altitudes above 15,000 feet
  44. An APU FIRE warning (red) CAS message on the ground:
    Will automatically shut the APU down and activate the fire extinguisher
  45. Above what altitude will an APU BLEED ALT LIMIT caution (amber) CAS message be displayed?
    Above 20,000 feet
  46. All fuel supplied to the engines comes from the:
    Collector tanks
  47. How is fuel supplied to the APU?
    The right main ejector or right electric fuel pump takes fuel from the right collector tank
  48. What is the function of the surge bay?
    To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system
  49. What operates the main ejectors?
    Motive flow from the engine-driven fuel pumps
  50. The FUEL BALANCED status (white) CAS message is displayed when:
    Fuel is balanced with 100lbs and the XFER valve is open
  51. With more than 13,700lbs of fuel, fuel balance must be maintained within:
  52. Single-point pressure refueling is limited to:
    55 psig
  53. Which of the following is not a function of the fire protection system:
    Cabin smoke detection
  54. The engines and APU are fitted with dual fire detection loops. The loops are connected to the:
    FIREX control unit
  55. The electronic fire detection and extinguishing control unit (FIREX-CU) is in:
    The aft equipment bay
  56. If a fire is detected in an engine, all of the following occur except:
    Engine FIREX system automatically shuts down the engine
  57. The APU fire detection system:
    Detects an overheat condition within the APU enclosure
  58. The main landing gear bay is protected:
    By a single overheat detection loop
  59. What triggers the fire detection system?
    When electrical resistance decreases to a trip point
  60. What is the purpose of the PTU?
    Gear retraction when the left EDP is not operational
  61. The hydraulic firewall shutoff valves:
    Are normally open
  62. The aux hydraulic system provides hydraulic system pressure to the rudder when:
    There is loss of hydraulic power from the right system
  63. The left DCMP is powered by the:
    Right main DC bus
  64. Normal hydraulic system pressure is:
    3,000 psi
  65. The DCMPs:
    Are capable of providing sufficient hydraulic pressure on their own
  66. The hydraulic firewall SOVs close when the respective L/R SOV pushbuttons are pressed, the L/R ENG FIRE pushbuttons are pressed, or:
    Automatically when system fluid temperature exceeds 135oC
  67. The nose landing gear is actuated by:
    The left hydraulic system
  68. The nose landing gear is centered:
    Electronically by the steering control unit (SCU)
  69. The speed limit for all tires is:
    182 knots
  70. Rudder pressure commands nosewheel steering up to _________ in either direction:
  71. The landing gear system is electronically controlled by:
    The proximity sensing system
  72. The main landing gear is held in the up-and-locked position by:
    Mechanical uplocks
  73. Nose wheel steering using the tiller is limited to:
    65o either side ofcenter
  74. In case of failure of both the left and right hydraulic systems, accumulators in both hydraulic brake systems provide pressure for:
    At least 6 brake applications
  75. Horizontal stabilizer trim range of movement is:
    0o to 15o
  76. Normal flap extension for 0 to 30 degrees should not exceed:
    20 seconds
  77. Multifunction spoilers extend to any position up to:
  78. Which of the following primary flight controls is not hydraulically assisted:
  79. Which of the spoiler panels operate as multifunction spoilers:
    The two outboard panels
  80. When disconnected, the roll disconnect mechanism:
    Allows the pilot to control roll spoilers
  81. When engaged, the gust lock:
    Prevents damage to the aileron surfaces from wind gusts
  82. Which of the following is not true of the rudder system?
    The left hydraulic system powers the lower rudder PCU
  83. The pneumatic system provides high-pressure (HP) air for:
    Wing anti-icing
  84. The high-pressure (HP) valve limits engine discharge pressure to:
    36 +/- 3 psi
  85. The IP valves are closed when:
    Power is lost to the valves
  86. The source of bleed air for takeoff and landing is normally:
    APU Bleed
  87. During climb, the sequence to switch to engine bleed air is:
    X BLEED closed, L BLEED on, APU BLEED off, R BLEED on
  88. All of the following are monitored by dual-sensing loops except:
    Trim air ducts
  89. A BLEED LOOP FAIL CAS message indicates:
    Both loops of a dual-loop zone are inoperative
  90. Channel B of the IASC monitors which of the following:
    Bleed leak detection monitoring and control
  91. The Challenger 300 has how many ice detectors:
  92. What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti-ice systems are ON and ice is detected:
    ICE DETECTED advisory (cyan) CAS message
  93. What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti-ice systems are OFF and ice is detected:
    ICE DETECTED caution (amber)
  94. Which of the following is not tested during the ICE DET systems check?
    Wing anti-ice valves
  95. The wing anti-ice valves are:
    Spring-loaded to the closed position
  96. The wing cross-bleed valve:
    Is normally closed
  97. Which source of bleed air is recommended for air conditioning during ground operations?
  98. The APU provides bleed air for air conditioning in flight up to:
    20,000 feet
  99. When the START switch is selected, the flow control valves:
    Automatically close to shutdown the air conditioning system
  100. RAM AIR can be used to open the ram air valve to ventilate the cabin:
    Below 10,000 feet
  101. The primary source of air conditioning in the Challenger 300 is:
    PACK air
  102. What is the function of the AIR SOURCE selector switch?
    To control the position of the flow control valves
  103. The pressurization system has how many independent modes of operations?
  104. The purpose of the safety valves is:
    To provide overpressure and negative pressure relief
  105. When LNDG ALT is set automatically from the FMS destination airport database, it will be displayed in what color on EICAS:
  106. Pressing EMER DEPRESS during AUTO mode will depressurize the aircraft ________ up to the aircraft altitude, whichever is lower:
    At 2,500 fpm up to 14,000 +/- 100’
  107. Which of the following is not true about ditching?
    Ditching is available in auto or manual mode
  108. In the “Takeoff and Return to Base Pressurization Sequence”:
    The pressurization system holds field elevation for 10 minutes or until the aircraft reaches 6,000’ AGL
  109. The maximum differential pressure allowed for landing is:
    1 psid
  110. A CABIN DELTA P warning (red) CAS message indicates:
    Cabin differential pressure is greater than 9.2 psid or less than -.5psid
  111. Which of the following is not a function of the pressurization control panel?
    Display of the environmental control system synoptic page
  112. Under normal operation, the oxygen system delivers oxygen from the cylinder directly to:
    The EPAV
  113. When fully charged, oxygen system pressure should be:
    1,850 psi
  114. The oxygen service point is located:
    On the right side of the fuselage directly aft of the wing
  115. What must the flight crew do if a fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight compartment?
    All flight crew members must wear oxygen masks with EMERGENCY selected
  116. When armed, when do emergency lights come on automatically?
    When right main bus power is lost
  117. Emergency lighting will last a minimum of:
    10 minutes at critical ambient temperature (low temperatures)
  118. Power is normally supplied to the standby instrument lighting by:
    The left main bus
  119. If power to the standby instrument light’s normal source is lost, standby lights are automatically switched to:
    The right essential bus
  120. What powers the emergency lights?
    Two independent rechargeable battery packs
  121. The cabin entry/exit door light switch is powered by:
    The left battery bus regardless of the battery switch position
  122. The secondary navigation light is selected on the:
    Right avionics rack CB panel
  123. The primary pitot-static system supports:
    Air data computers 1 and 2
  124. The altimeter barometer knob is located on the:
    Compass panel just above each pilot radio panel
  125. By selecting the ADC reversion switch to the #1 position:
    Both PFDs receive data from only air data computer 1
  126. Which of the following is not interfaced with the attitude heading and reference system?
    Integrated standby instrument
  127. Selecting the compass to DG mode:
    Removes magnetic flux detector information from the attitude heading computer
  128. Crew control of the EFIS system consists of:
    Pilot and copilot display control panels and a single flight guidance panel on theglare shield
  129. The slip/skid indicator is:
    A small rectangle below the roll pointer driven by lateral acceleration
  130. The airspeed trend vector:
    Indicates the airspeed predicted in the next 10 seconds
  131. VOR/localizer displays on the horizontal situation indicator are:
    Green pointer or CDI for onside information, amber for cross side information
  132. The autopilot engaged indication is:
    A green AP on the top of the PFD
  133. The flight guidance mode goes to half bank automatically when:
    Climbing through 31,600
  134. To automatically tune COM1 to 121.5:
    Select the tune reversion switch to the COM1 121.5 position
  135. The default lateral mode of the flight director is:
  136. The autopilot may be disconnected by all of the following except:
    Pressing FD on the FGP
  137. Manually entered data is depicted on the flight displays in ________ and FMS supplied data is depicted in _________.
  138. What is the takeoff distance penalty for a rolling takeoff:
    100 feet
  139. What is takeoff data based on:
    Static takeoff and APR armed
  140. What is the minimum flap retraction altitude:
    400 feet AGL
  141. What is Vt for flaps 10o:
    V2 + 15
  142. What is Vt for flaps 20o:
    V2 + 25
  143. When does the FMS auto tune a NAV freq:
    Only for an ILS/LOC within 30nm of destination airport that is set in the FMS
  144. How do you make an FMS waypoint a fly-over waypoint:
    XYZ/0 = XYZ@
  145. Where is the FMS tune inhibit feature located:
    Tune page – NAV1 or NAV2 – Tuning AUTO/MAN
  146. What is the most accurate way to position the FMS:
    GPS – POS INIT page 2
  147. APP climb gradient is based on what configuration:
    Single-engine,flaps 10o, Gear up,APR operating
  148. Landing climb gradient is base on what configuration:
    Both engines, flaps 30o,gear down, T/O power
Card Set
CL300 Q&A