Final 1 cont.

  1. Which of the following is not one of the words that "patients" in David Rosenhans study claimed to hear?
  2. Which of the following is a commonly-administered personality inventory?
    the MMPI
  3. The extent to which a test yields the same results as a other measures of the same behavior, thoughts, or feelings is referred to as:
    Concurrent validity.
  4. Similarity in people's answers to different parts of the same test is referred to as:
    Internal Reliability.
  5. An IQ score of 100 means that:
    the client performed similarly to the average performance of other people of the same age.
  6. The extent to which a test measures all the important aspects of a phenomenon that is purports to measure is referred to as:
    Content Validity
  7. If a test is administered to the same person by two different clinicians and there is a agreement on the findings the is said to have high:
  8. The Bender-Gestalt Test is an example of a:
    neuropsychological test.
  9. Which of the following includes validity scales that determine if a person is performing the test in a straightforward and honest manner?
    Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
  10. Which of the following brain imaging technologies involves exposing a person to radiation?
    Computerized tomography(CT)
  11. Which of the following provides a picture of the activity in the brain?
    position-emission tomography(PET)
  12. Which of the following types of tests do not have strong reliability and validity?
    Projective tests.
  13. The first edition of the DSM:
    provided vague diagnostic criteria for the listed mental disorders and was heavily influenced by psychoanalytic theory.
  14. Beginning with its third edition, the DSM was revamped due to:
    problems with the reliability of diagnostic criteria.
  15. On Axis II of the DSM, a clinician if the client is suffering from:
    Mental retardation or personality disorder
  16. When determining a DSM diagnosis, problems such as housing or economic difficulties should be recorded on:
  17. When determining a DSM diagnosis, general medical conditions should be recorded on:
  18. Which of the following statements is false in regards to how the diagnostic criteria for recent editions of the DSM were developed?
    Criteria were adopted only if the experts could reach a consensus.
  19. An influential critic of psychiatry, Thomas Szasz,stated that:
    the entire system of diagnosing mental illnesses is corrupt and should be abandoned.
  20. In David Rosenhands a classic study of the effects of labeling, pseudopatients were:
    admitted to psychiatric hospital based on one symptom.
  21. There are special challenges in studying psychopathology. which of the following is NOT one of these special challenges.

  22. At the end of a research study, researcher should explain the purpose of the research and answer any questions that their participants may have. This is called:
  23. In Scientific research, the null hypothesis:
    Is often challenged using a variety of methodologies.
  24. A disadvantage of case studies is a lack of:
  25. A major problem for correlational studies is that they:
    A cannot establish whether one variable causes another.
  26. Researchers administer measures of alcohol use and impulsivity to incoming college students during their orientation to a uni. They predict that higher levels of impulsivity will be associated with increased alcohol consumption. This type of study is a:
    continuous variable study.
  27. A correlational coefficient of +.80 indicates that:
    As values of the independent variable increase,values of the dependant variable increase.
  28. Researchers studying the relationship between intelligence and frequently of watching sports find that questionnaires measuring these variables are correlated at .30, p>.05. This suggests that:
    there is no relationship between intelligence and sports watching, because the correlation coefficient is of a weak strength.
  29. In epidemiological studies, the incidence of a disorder is:
    The number of new cases of the disorder that develop during a specific period of time.
  30. Which type of study, if done correctly may establish a causal relationship?
    therapy outcome studies.
  31. An advantage of both human laboratory and therapy outcome studies is they:
    have good internal validity.
  32. Which of the following are used to avoid demand characteristics?
    filler measures.
  33. To control third variables in an experimental study, researchers:
    conduct a longitudinal study.
  34. In therapy outcome studies, researchers:
    assess the impact of specific interventions.
  35. A specific type of single-case experimental design in which an intervention is introduced, withdrawn and then reinstated and the participant's behavior is examined on and off treatment called the:
    Reversal design
  36. Animal studies:
    are crucial to research on drug effectiveness.
  37. Which of the following is not a challenge of cross-cultural research?
    It is on the decline and considered too complicated to result in valuable data.
  38. When conducting a meta-analysis, the researcher transforms the results of each study into a statistic called the:
    effect size.
  39. Which of the following statements about Janice Egelands study of the Amish is true?
    The Amish welcomed Egeland and her colleagues to conduct studies of depression and mania in their communities.
  40. Which of the following is not a right of research subjects?
    The right to know all deceptions used in the research.
  41. In a survey of prevalence of different types of social fears,people most commonly report having experienced at some point in their lives?
    Public speaking
  42. Which of the following statements is false in regards to adaptive fear?

    B. There is a great deal of anticipatory anxiety.
  43. According to cognitive theorists, people prone to panic attacks:
    have increased anxiety sensitivity.
  44. Which of the following types of drugs are not used to treat panic attacks?

    A. barbiturates.
  45. People who may fear embarrassing themselves in front of other people have a:
    social phobia
  46. According to behavioral theories:
    Operant conditioning helps maintain a fear of phobic object.
  47. Intensively exposing individuals to their feared object until their anxiety extinguishes is called:
  48. During an episode of which of the following anxiety disorders is a person most likely to believe that they are experiencing a heart attack?
    Panic Disorder
  49. People with generalized anxiety disorder
    Often experience mood disorders.
  50. Several studies examining the efficacy of cognitive-behavioral therapy have that 85% -90% of clients receiving this form of treatment were panic attack free within __weeks and nearly 90% free after ___years.
    12 weeks;2 years.
  51. Which of the following statements about OCD is false?

    B. People with OCD are considered to be psychotic because of their inability to control their thoughts and behaviors.
  52. OCD tends to begin:
    Between 6-15 years of age in men and between 20-29 in women.
  53. Which of the following statements about OCD is false?

  54. Which of the following is most common type of obsession in individuals with OCD?

    A.Hurting one's child
    B.Dirt and contamination
    C.Shouting obscenities
    D.pornographic images.
    Dirt and Contamination.
  55. Which type of phobia takes its name from the greek for "fear of the marketplace"?
  56. Which of the following describes a brain circuit hypothesized to be dysfunctional in OCD?
    orbital frontal cortex-->Caudate Nucleus--->thalamus
  57. According to Cognitive Behavioral Theories of OCD, which of the following is not a reason why people with the disorder have trouble turning off the intrusive thoughts?
    They believe they have no control over their thoughts.
  58. Which of the following is an effective treatment for OCD?
    selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
  59. The failure of which type of drug to treat OCD provided a clue that OCD is different from other anxiety disorders?
Card Set
Final 1 cont.