Quiz Questions

Q: New dosage form that is manufactured by a new process that leads to more consistent stability of T3 Hormones

Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by CYP3A4 mediated metabolism and glucuronidation

Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor in which a dosage limitation of no more than 80 mg/daily has been established by the FDA due to myopathy risk

Q: Antimicrobial erthromycin analog that is not a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4

Q: IV or oral macrolide that does not inhibit CYP enzymes

Q: lowest lipophilicity statin which may produce less cognitive dysfunction

Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by CYP2C9 mediated metabolism and glucuronidation

Q: Proton pump inhibitor suitable for patients with a polymorphism in the CYP2C19 enzyme resulting in elevated levels of drugs

Q: Beta1-selective beta-adrenergic blocking agent

Q: Beta-1 selective blocking agent used to prevent cardiac remodeling, MI, Hypertension, Angina treatment

Q: B2-selective short acting sympathomimetic bronchodilator commonly used as a rescue inhaler product to relieve bronchoconstriction

Q: Cyclooxygenase inhibitor that promotes closure of a clinical relevant patent ductus in premature infants

Q: Arylpropionic acid NSAID

Q: Proton pump inhibitor used in peptic ulcer disease and its use can prevent the metabolism of the R-warfarin anticoagulant molecule

Q: PPI drug in which one of the enantiomers of this racemic mixture is a potent CYP2C19 inhibitor leading to possible treatment failure with ticlopidine or clopidogrel

Q: Long acting B2-seclective agonist and antiinflammatory corticosteroid for treatment of bronchoconstriction especially nocturnal asthma

Q: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

Q: Antimicrobial agent used for UTI/PCP infections where the sulfonamide component inhibits the clearance of S-Warfarin

Q: Syndergistic combination used to treat UTI and PCP

Q: 1,4-dihydropyridine class Ca channel blocker, more pronounced vascular activity and less bradycardia

Q: An anticoagulant drug that demonstrates variable pharmacogenomic properties due to individual patient variability in the metabolic CYP2C9 enzyme and the vitamin K reductase target called VKORC1

Q: Anticoagulant “blood thinner” associated with VKORC1 and CYP2C9 polymorphisms

Q: R-Least potent of the warfarin vitamin K-reductase enantiomers and metabolized by CYP1A2 and CYP3A4

Q: S Most potent of the warfarin vitamin K-reductase enantiomers and metabolized by CYP2C9

Q: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor that is metabolized by sulfate conjugation in the liver

Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by sulfation and not CYP mediated metabolism and glucuronidation

Q: lowest lipophilicity statin which may produce less cognitive dysfunction

Q: Oral aminopenicillin/beta-lactamase combo routinely used for sinusitis

Q: Narcotic agonist and central COX inhibitor product

Q: Common adjunct agent for use with other drugs for type 2 diabetes--decreases gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption, discontinue use if heart attack/septicemia occurs

Q: Anticonvulsant benzodiazepine for seizure control

Q: Increases the activity of nuclear receptor PPAR-gamma that regulates genes that control glucose/insulin metabolism, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin

Q: Useful in migraine prophylaxis, adjunct seizure therapy, MS, postherpatic neuralgia, restless leg syndrome

Q: highly potent sulfonamide containing loop diuretic agent that inhibits the Na?K/Cl carrier system primarily in the loop of henle

Q: Fluroquinoline for prostatitis and inhalation anthrax

Q: Beta-1 selective blocking agent

Q: COX-2 selective NSAID agent in normal clinical dosages

Q: Post herpetic neuralgia, diabetic peripheral neuropathy, partial seizures, fibromyalgia treatment

Q: Useful in diabetic peripheral neuropathy, adjunct seizure therapy, postherpatic neuralgia, fibromyalgia

Q: Respiratory corticosteroid inhalation poser for asthma

Q: Anti-cholinergic bronchodilator inhalation powder

Q: Non-selective alpha- and beta blocking agent prodrug where the hepatic metabolite has 14 x greater beta-blockade than the parent drug, this drug clearly saves lives of patients with idiopathic cardiomyopathy

Q: abuse by injection resistant dosage form of dextroamphetamine used in ADHD and narcolepsy

Q: Intestinal brush border lipase inhbitor used to prevent the absorption/breakdown of dietary fat for use in hyperlipidemia--Beta-lactam based acylation inhibitor mechanism

Q: Fibrate that can be used with a statin such as atorvastatin for difficult to control hyperlipidemia--it minimally inhibits statin metabolite glucuronidation

Q: Benzodiazepine useful for status epilepticus, muscle relaxation and treatment of anxiety

Q: Benzodiazepine useful in status epilepticus

Q: Non-selective xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in gout, tumor lysis syndrome and calcium oxalate calculi--prodrug metabolized to alloxanthine

Q: Selective inhibitor of cGMP specific phosphodiesterase 5 and used to treat pulmonary hypertension

Q: Narcotic agonist/antagonist for treatment of heroin addiction

Q: Acute narcotic overdosage--decreased bowel sounds, pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression reversal

Q: Tetracycline that can be taken with food or milk, drug of choice for prevention of Lyme’s disease upon tick removal

Q: Inotropic agent used in congestive heart failure--P-glycoprotein inducers lead to a decrease in the oral bioavailability of this important drug to treat heart failure

Q:Cardiac glycoside once considered the drug of choice for atrial fib/flutter

Q: Schedule 2 narcotic that inhibits the CNS medulla mediated cough reflex--avoid used in COPD and asthma

Q: Antipyretic and COX inhibitor limited in dosage to 325 mg in narcotic combo products in order to decrease risk of liver toxicity

Q: Sugar conjugated estrogen product that is isolated from horse urine and used for various indications including osteoporosis and HRT for menopause

Q: Phenothiazine based antihistamine with useful H1 receptor blockade, anti-emetic, sedative and post-operative adjunct treatment

Q: Anti-dopaminergic phenothiazine with type 1-antihistaminic properties used for antiemetic properties

Q: Polyunsaturated fatty acid esters that used as an adjunct to diet to reduce very high triglycerides

Q: Hypertension indication: Beta-1 selective blocking agent also modulates nitric oxide system leading to further vasodilation

Q: Antagonist of the H2 histamine receptor and does not inhibit CYP450 metabolic enzymes

Q: Concurrent use contraindicated with erthromycins since they anatagonize each other due to same ribosomal binding sites

Q: necessary for proper DNA production via one-carbon methylation--increase amount in pregnancy, biosynthesized in our gut by bacteria

Q: Benign prostatic hypertrophy drug that has 38 fold greater selectivity for alpha1a receptor in prostatic smooth muscle

Q: Schedule 2 narcotic that inhibits the CNS medulla mediated cough reflex--avoid used in COPD and asthma

Q: Fluroquinoline useful in treating multidrug resistant TB

Q: Sulfonylurea agent with the shortest 2-3 hour half-life, no active metabolites and the safest drug to use in the elderly

Q:  Long acting beta2-selective agonist with additional properties of mast cell stabilizer that inhibits the release of histamine and leukotrienes

Q: Rapid IV infusion CNS toxicity manifests as dizziness, drowsiness, speech disturbances, respiratory depression seizures

Q: Local anesthetic amide based product also used to control cardiac arrhymias

Q: Approved for prophylactic use to reduce infection rates by HIV

Q:  NRTI indicated for pediatric use in patients over 3 months of age, not a CYP substrate/no inhibition of glucuronidation

Q: Inhibitor of protein tyrosine kinase in cancer treatment, metabolized by CYP3A4

Q: Low-MW heparin product with greater selectivity for Factor Xa- can be administered as an outpatient by subcutaneous injection in the stomach muscle

Q:used to treat narcolepsy

Q: Folic acid antagonist that is trapped once inside the cell following polyglutamate attachment

Q: Azapeptide inhibitor of HIV protease that is a potent inhibitor of glucuronidation by UGT1AT

Q: treatment of attention deficit disorders and narcolepsy

Q: Extensive first-pass metabolism limits systemic availability--glucocorticoid for treatment of Crohn’s disease

Q: Long acting recombinant insulin product for injection that has been chemically modified with a c14 fatty acid to increase protein binding

Q: Used in combination with CoPegus and Pegasys-a hepatitis C nS3/4A serine protease inhibitor

Q: Allosteric coupled to the benzodiazepine receptor agonist used for treatment of insomnia-- appears safe for long term use with no loss of efficiency

Q: Integrase strand inhibitor used in combo with other agents in resistant HIV strains

Q: Common adjunct agent for use with other drugs for type 2 diabetes--decreases gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption, discontinue use if heart attack/septicemia occurs

Q: IM monoclonal antibody-prevents protein mediated cell-to-cell fusion of RSV-infected cells by binding to the epitope of the A antigenic site

Q: Immunosuppressant used in transplant patients and is a substrate for CYP3A4

Q: Tightly controlled antimicrobial that prevents the formation of 70S initiation complex responsible for protein synthesis

Q: Estrogen receptor antagonism (SERM) used for osteoporis treatment

Q: Boronic acid function group 26 proteasome inhibitor

Q: Injectable parenteral only bisphosphonate used to treat hypercalcemia due to malignancy

Q: 10x potent than morphine, weakest antitussive, most potent respiratory depressant/physical addiction agent used in pain and pre-operative anesthesia

Q: HIV protease inhibitor that must be co-administered with 100 mg of ritonavir in order to inhibit CYP3A/2D6 to ensure adequate plasma levels

Q: Treatment of aerobic Gram (+) infections--cyclic lipopetide--discontinue statins due to increased risk of rhabdomyolysis

Q: bisphosphate used for treatment of post-menopausal osteoporosis, oral drug

Q: Treatment of end-stage renal disease induced hyperphosphatemia

Q: Activates D1/D2 dopamine receptors, used in ADHD and narcolepsy

Q: 5alpha-reductase inhibitor used in BPH

Q: Monoclonal antibody against IgE for treatment of unresponsive asthma

Q: Selective inhibitor of presynaptic norepinephrine transporter for use in ADHD, a non schedule controlled drug

Q: Recombinant DNA incretin mimetic or glucoagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist as an adjunct to diet and exercise in type 2 DM

Q: Anti-mitotic spindle formation inhibitor that decreases the inflammation due to uric acid crystal deposition

Q: NRTI with severe hypersensitivity that can be determined by pharmacogenomic testing for the HLA-B*5701 gene polymorphism

Q: Transdermal narcotic product used due to extreme lipid solubility for break through cancer pain

Q: Increases the activity of nuclear receptor PPAR-gamma that regulates genes that control glucose/insulin metabolism, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin

Q: Cyclooxygenase based inhibitor used prophylactically with many other anti-platelet drugs to prevent platelet aggregate induced thrombus formation in arteries

Q: Anti-platelet drug which inhibits phosphodiesterase and adenosine reuptake, adjunct to coumarin anticoagulants in post-op cardiac valve replacement

Q: Irreversible covalent modification of serine active site of COX by this drug--stops production of prostaglandins and other inflammatory mediatiors

Q: Low dose cyclooxygenase inhibitor drug that inhibits platelet aggregation and used prophylactically to prevent coronary occlusions

Q: Phosphonate nucleotide analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor with reduced activity against the K65R reverse transcriptase mutation (3% in USA)

Q: Parenteral extended spectrum penicillin/beta-lactamase combo for pre-surgical prophylaxis

Q: Alzheimer’s centrally acting cholinesteras inhibitor transdermal product with no known CYP drug interactions

Q: Adenosine A2A receptor agonist used in radionuclide myocardial imagining to increase vasodilation and coronary blood flow

Q: Digests extracellular DNA in cystic fibrosis

Q: Second generation neuroleptic agent for schizophrenia--antagonism of dopamine and serotonin receptors--can cause QT prolongation

Q: Treatment of diarrhea by noninvasive strains of E. coli and for treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

Q: Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator useful in MS

Q: Most poorly tolerated of HIV protease inhibitors, severe diarrhea, flu-like symptoms, Potent CYP 3A/2D6 inhibitor, capsules must be refrigerated

Q: Anti-mitotic spindle poison that stabilizes and promotes microtubule assembly

Q: Partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, most successful agent used in tobacco cessation therapy

Q: Monoclonal antibody product which targets the RANKL protein that is responsible for production of osteoclasts used in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at high risk of fracture

Q: Cellular proliferation (mTor) inhibitor that is a component of drug eluting stents

Q: Anti-depressant useful in aiding smoking cessation therapy, watch for seizures

Q: treatment of bacterial enterocolititis or other serious gram (+) infection--resistance via D-lactate or D-serine substitution