Quiz Questions

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  1. Q: New dosage form that is manufactured by a new process that leads to more consistent stability of T3 Hormones
    • Levothyroxine Sodium
    • Syndroid
  2. Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by CYP3A4 mediated metabolism and glucuronidation
    • Atorvastatin
    • Lipitor
  3. Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor in which a dosage limitation of no more than 80 mg/daily has been established by the FDA due to myopathy risk
    • Simvastatin
    • Zocor
  4. Q: Antimicrobial erthromycin analog that is not a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4
    • Azithromycin
    • Zithromax
  5. Q: IV or oral macrolide that does not inhibit CYP enzymes
    • Azithromycin
    • Zithromax
  6. Q: lowest lipophilicity statin which may produce less cognitive dysfunction
    • Rosuvastatin
    • Crestor
  7. Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by CYP2C9 mediated metabolism and glucuronidation
    • Rosuvastatin
    • Crestor
  8. Q: Proton pump inhibitor suitable for patients with a polymorphism in the CYP2C19 enzyme resulting in elevated levels of drugs
    • Esomeprazole
    • Nexium
  9. Q: Beta1-selective beta-adrenergic blocking agent
    • Metoprolol Tartrate
    • Lopressor
  10. Q: Beta-1 selective blocking agent used to prevent cardiac remodeling, MI, Hypertension, Angina treatment
    • Metoprolol Tartrate
    • Lopressor
  11. Q: B2-selective short acting sympathomimetic bronchodilator commonly used as a rescue inhaler product to relieve bronchoconstriction
    • Albuterol Sulfate
    • Proair HFA
  12. Q: Cyclooxygenase inhibitor that promotes closure of a clinical relevant patent ductus in premature infants
    • Ibuprofen lysine
    • NeoProfen
  13. Q: Arylpropionic acid NSAID
    • Ibuprofen
    • Advil
  14. Q: Proton pump inhibitor used in peptic ulcer disease and its use can prevent the metabolism of the R-warfarin anticoagulant molecule
    • Omeprazole
    • Prilosec
  15. Q: PPI drug in which one of the enantiomers of this racemic mixture is a potent CYP2C19 inhibitor leading to possible treatment failure with ticlopidine or clopidogrel
    • Omeprazole
    • Prilosec
  16. Q: Long acting B2-seclective agonist and antiinflammatory corticosteroid for treatment of bronchoconstriction especially nocturnal asthma
    • Fluticasone/salmeterol
    • Advair Diskus
  17. Q: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
  18. Q: Antimicrobial agent used for UTI/PCP infections where the sulfonamide component inhibits the clearance of S-Warfarin
    • Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim
    • Bactrim
  19. Q: Syndergistic combination used to treat UTI and PCP
    • Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim
    • Bactrim
  20. Q: 1,4-dihydropyridine class Ca channel blocker, more pronounced vascular activity and less bradycardia
    • Amlodipine Besylate
    • Norvasc
  21. Q: An anticoagulant drug that demonstrates variable pharmacogenomic properties due to individual patient variability in the metabolic CYP2C9 enzyme and the vitamin K reductase target called VKORC1
    • Warfarin Sodium
    • Coumadin
  22. Q: Anticoagulant “blood thinner” associated with VKORC1 and CYP2C9 polymorphisms
    • Warfarin Sodium
    • Coumadin
  23. Q: R-Least potent of the warfarin vitamin K-reductase enantiomers and metabolized by CYP1A2 and CYP3A4
    • Warfarin Sodium
    • Coumadin
  24. Q: S Most potent of the warfarin vitamin K-reductase enantiomers and metabolized by CYP2C9
    • Warfarin Sodium 
    • Coumadin
  25. Q: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor that is metabolized by sulfate conjugation in the liver
    • Pravastatin
    • Pravachol
  26. Q: HMGCoA reductase inhibitor eliminated by sulfation and not CYP mediated metabolism and glucuronidation
    • Pravastatin
    • Pravachol
  27. Q: lowest lipophilicity statin which may produce less cognitive dysfunction
    • Pravastatin
    • Pravachol
  28. Q: Oral aminopenicillin/beta-lactamase combo routinely used for sinusitis
    • Amoxicillin/Potassium Clavulanate
    • Augmentin
  29. Q: Narcotic agonist and central COX inhibitor product
    • Oxycodone/APAP
    • Percocet
  30. Q: Common adjunct agent for use with other drugs for type 2 diabetes--decreases gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption, discontinue use if heart attack/septicemia occurs
    • Metformin
    • Glucophage
  31. Q: Anticonvulsant benzodiazepine for seizure control
    • Clonazepan
    • Klonopin
  32. Q: Increases the activity of nuclear receptor PPAR-gamma that regulates genes that control glucose/insulin metabolism, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin
    • Pioglitazone
    • Actos
  33. Q: Useful in migraine prophylaxis, adjunct seizure therapy, MS, postherpatic neuralgia, restless leg syndrome
    • Gabapentin
    • Neurontin
  34. Q: highly potent sulfonamide containing loop diuretic agent that inhibits the Na?K/Cl carrier system primarily in the loop of henle
    • Furosemide
    • Lasix
  35. Q: Fluroquinoline for prostatitis and inhalation anthrax
    • Ciprofloxacin
    • Cipro
  36. Q: Beta-1 selective blocking agent
    • Atenolol
    • Tenormin
  37. Q: COX-2 selective NSAID agent in normal clinical dosages
    • Celecoxib
    • Celebrex
  38. Q: Post herpetic neuralgia, diabetic peripheral neuropathy, partial seizures, fibromyalgia treatment
    • Pregabalin
    • Lyrica
  39. Q: Useful in diabetic peripheral neuropathy, adjunct seizure therapy, postherpatic neuralgia, fibromyalgia
    • Pregabalin
    • Lyrica
  40. Q: Respiratory corticosteroid inhalation poser for asthma
    • Mometasone furoate
    • Nasonex
  41. Q: Anti-cholinergic bronchodilator inhalation powder
    • Tiotropium bromide
    • Spiriva HandiHaler
  42. Q: Non-selective alpha- and beta blocking agent prodrug where the hepatic metabolite has 14 x greater beta-blockade than the parent drug, this drug clearly saves lives of patients with idiopathic cardiomyopathy
    • Carvedilol
    • Coreg
  43. Q: abuse by injection resistant dosage form of dextroamphetamine used in ADHD and narcolepsy
    • Lisdexamphetamine 
    • Vyvanse
  44. Q: Intestinal brush border lipase inhbitor used to prevent the absorption/breakdown of dietary fat for use in hyperlipidemia--Beta-lactam based acylation inhibitor mechanism
    • Ezetimibe
    • Zetia
  45. Q: Fibrate that can be used with a statin such as atorvastatin for difficult to control hyperlipidemia--it minimally inhibits statin metabolite glucuronidation
    • Fenofibrate
    • Tricor
  46. Q: Benzodiazepine useful for status epilepticus, muscle relaxation and treatment of anxiety
    • Diazepam
    • Valium
  47. Q: Benzodiazepine useful in status epilepticus
    • Diazepam
    • Valium
  48. Q: Non-selective xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in gout, tumor lysis syndrome and calcium oxalate calculi--prodrug metabolized to alloxanthine
    • Allopurinol
    • Zyloprim
  49. Q: Selective inhibitor of cGMP specific phosphodiesterase 5 and used to treat pulmonary hypertension
    • Tadalafil
    • Cialis
  50. Q: Narcotic agonist/antagonist for treatment of heroin addiction
    • Buprenorphine/naloxone
    • Suboxone
  51. Q: Acute narcotic overdosage--decreased bowel sounds, pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression reversal
  52. Q: Tetracycline that can be taken with food or milk, drug of choice for prevention of Lyme’s disease upon tick removal
    • Doxycycline hyclate
    • Vibramycin
  53. Q: Inotropic agent used in congestive heart failure--P-glycoprotein inducers lead to a decrease in the oral bioavailability of this important drug to treat heart failure
    • Digoxin
    • Lanoxin
  54. Q:Cardiac glycoside once considered the drug of choice for atrial fib/flutter
    • Digoxin
    • Lanoxin
  55. Q: Schedule 2 narcotic that inhibits the CNS medulla mediated cough reflex--avoid used in COPD and asthma
  56. Q: Antipyretic and COX inhibitor limited in dosage to 325 mg in narcotic combo products in order to decrease risk of liver toxicity
    • APAP
    • Tylenol
  57. Q: Sugar conjugated estrogen product that is isolated from horse urine and used for various indications including osteoporosis and HRT for menopause
    • Conjugated Estrogen
    • Premarin
  58. Q: Phenothiazine based antihistamine with useful H1 receptor blockade, anti-emetic, sedative and post-operative adjunct treatment
    • Promethazine
    • Phenergan
  59. Q: Anti-dopaminergic phenothiazine with type 1-antihistaminic properties used for antiemetic properties
    • Promethazine
    • Phenergan
  60. Q: Polyunsaturated fatty acid esters that used as an adjunct to diet to reduce very high triglycerides
    • Omega-3 ethyl esters
    • Lovaza
  61. Q: Hypertension indication: Beta-1 selective blocking agent also modulates nitric oxide system leading to further vasodilation
    • Nebivolol
    • Bystolic
  62. Q: Antagonist of the H2 histamine receptor and does not inhibit CYP450 metabolic enzymes
    • Famotidine
    • Pepcid
  63. Q: Concurrent use contraindicated with erthromycins since they anatagonize each other due to same ribosomal binding sites
    • Clindamycin HCl
    • Cleocin
  64. Q: necessary for proper DNA production via one-carbon methylation--increase amount in pregnancy, biosynthesized in our gut by bacteria
    • Folic acid
    • Folacin
  65. Q: Benign prostatic hypertrophy drug that has 38 fold greater selectivity for alpha1a receptor in prostatic smooth muscle
    • Tamsulosin
    • Flomax
  66. Q: Schedule 2 narcotic that inhibits the CNS medulla mediated cough reflex--avoid used in COPD and asthma
  67. Q: Fluroquinoline useful in treating multidrug resistant TB
    • Levofloxacin
    • Levaquin
  68. Q: Sulfonylurea agent with the shortest 2-3 hour half-life, no active metabolites and the safest drug to use in the elderly
    • Glipizide
    • Glucotrol
  69. Q:  Long acting beta2-selective agonist with additional properties of mast cell stabilizer that inhibits the release of histamine and leukotrienes
    Formoterol Fumerate
  70. Q: Rapid IV infusion CNS toxicity manifests as dizziness, drowsiness, speech disturbances, respiratory depression seizures
  71. Q: Local anesthetic amide based product also used to control cardiac arrhymias
    • Lidocaine
    • Lidoderm
  72. Q: Approved for prophylactic use to reduce infection rates by HIV
    • Emtricitabine/tenofovir
    • Truvada
  73. Q:  NRTI indicated for pediatric use in patients over 3 months of age, not a CYP substrate/no inhibition of glucuronidation
  74. Q: Inhibitor of protein tyrosine kinase in cancer treatment, metabolized by CYP3A4
    • Imatinib mesylate
    • Gleevac
  75. Q: Low-MW heparin product with greater selectivity for Factor Xa- can be administered as an outpatient by subcutaneous injection in the stomach muscle
    • Enoxaparin Sodium
    • Lovenox
  76. Q:used to treat narcolepsy
    • Armodafinil
    • Provigil
  77. Q: Folic acid antagonist that is trapped once inside the cell following polyglutamate attachment
    • Pemetrexed
    • Alimta
  78. Q: Azapeptide inhibitor of HIV protease that is a potent inhibitor of glucuronidation by UGT1AT
    • Atazanavir
    • Reyataz
  79. Q: treatment of attention deficit disorders and narcolepsy
    • Methylphenidate
    • Concerta
  80. Q: Extensive first-pass metabolism limits systemic availability--glucocorticoid for treatment of Crohn’s disease
    • Budesonide
    • Endocort
  81. Q: Long acting recombinant insulin product for injection that has been chemically modified with a c14 fatty acid to increase protein binding
    • Insulin Detemir
    • Levemir
  82. Q: Used in combination with CoPegus and Pegasys-a hepatitis C nS3/4A serine protease inhibitor
    • Telaprevir
    • Incivek
  83. Q: Allosteric coupled to the benzodiazepine receptor agonist used for treatment of insomnia-- appears safe for long term use with no loss of efficiency
    • Eszopiclone
    • Lunesta
  84. Q: Integrase strand inhibitor used in combo with other agents in resistant HIV strains
    • Raltegravir
    • Isentress
  85. Q: Common adjunct agent for use with other drugs for type 2 diabetes--decreases gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption, discontinue use if heart attack/septicemia occurs
  86. Q: IM monoclonal antibody-prevents protein mediated cell-to-cell fusion of RSV-infected cells by binding to the epitope of the A antigenic site
    • Palivizumab
    • Synagisis
  87. Q: Immunosuppressant used in transplant patients and is a substrate for CYP3A4
    • Cyclosporine
    • Restasis
  88. Q: Tightly controlled antimicrobial that prevents the formation of 70S initiation complex responsible for protein synthesis
    • Linezolid
    • Zyvox
  89. Q: Estrogen receptor antagonism (SERM) used for osteoporis treatment
    • Raloxifene
    • Evista
  90. Q: Boronic acid function group 26 proteasome inhibitor
    • Bortezomib
    • Velcade
  91. Q: Injectable parenteral only bisphosphonate used to treat hypercalcemia due to malignancy
    • Zoledronic acid
    • Zometa
  92. Q: 10x potent than morphine, weakest antitussive, most potent respiratory depressant/physical addiction agent used in pain and pre-operative anesthesia
    • Oxymorphone
    • Opana
  93. Q: HIV protease inhibitor that must be co-administered with 100 mg of ritonavir in order to inhibit CYP3A/2D6 to ensure adequate plasma levels
    • Darunavir
    • Prezista
  94. Q: Treatment of aerobic Gram (+) infections--cyclic lipopetide--discontinue statins due to increased risk of rhabdomyolysis
    • Daptomycin
    • Cubicin
  95. Q: bisphosphate used for treatment of post-menopausal osteoporosis, oral drug
    • Ibandronate
    • Boniva
  96. Q: Treatment of end-stage renal disease induced hyperphosphatemia
    • Sevelamer
    • Renvela
  97. Q: Activates D1/D2 dopamine receptors, used in ADHD and narcolepsy
    • Dexmethylphenidate
    • Focalin
  98. Q: 5alpha-reductase inhibitor used in BPH
    • Dutasteride 
    • Avodart
  99. Q: Monoclonal antibody against IgE for treatment of unresponsive asthma
    • Omalizumab
    • Xolair
  100. Q: Selective inhibitor of presynaptic norepinephrine transporter for use in ADHD, a non schedule controlled drug
    • Atomoxetine
    • Strattera
  101. Q: Recombinant DNA incretin mimetic or glucoagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist as an adjunct to diet and exercise in type 2 DM
    • Exenatide
    • Byetta
  102. Q: Anti-mitotic spindle formation inhibitor that decreases the inflammation due to uric acid crystal deposition
    • Colchicine
    • Colcrys
  103. Q: NRTI with severe hypersensitivity that can be determined by pharmacogenomic testing for the HLA-B*5701 gene polymorphism
  104. Q: Transdermal narcotic product used due to extreme lipid solubility for break through cancer pain
    • Fentanyl
    • Duragesic
  105. Q: Increases the activity of nuclear receptor PPAR-gamma that regulates genes that control glucose/insulin metabolism, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin
  106. Q: Cyclooxygenase based inhibitor used prophylactically with many other anti-platelet drugs to prevent platelet aggregate induced thrombus formation in arteries
  107. Q: Anti-platelet drug which inhibits phosphodiesterase and adenosine reuptake, adjunct to coumarin anticoagulants in post-op cardiac valve replacement
    • Dipyridamole
    • Persantine
  108. Q: Irreversible covalent modification of serine active site of COX by this drug--stops production of prostaglandins and other inflammatory mediatiors
  109. Q: Low dose cyclooxygenase inhibitor drug that inhibits platelet aggregation and used prophylactically to prevent coronary occlusions
  110. Q: Phosphonate nucleotide analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor with reduced activity against the K65R reverse transcriptase mutation (3% in USA)
    • Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
    • Viread
  111. Q: Parenteral extended spectrum penicillin/beta-lactamase combo for pre-surgical prophylaxis
    • Piperacillin/Tazobactam
    • Zosyn
  112. Q: Alzheimer’s centrally acting cholinesteras inhibitor transdermal product with no known CYP drug interactions
    • Rivastigmine
    • Exelon
  113. Q: Adenosine A2A receptor agonist used in radionuclide myocardial imagining to increase vasodilation and coronary blood flow
    • Regadenoson
    • Lexiscan
  114. Q: Digests extracellular DNA in cystic fibrosis
    • Dornase alfa
    • Pulmozyme
  115. Q: Second generation neuroleptic agent for schizophrenia--antagonism of dopamine and serotonin receptors--can cause QT prolongation
    • Paliperidone
    • Invega
  116. Q: Treatment of diarrhea by noninvasive strains of E. coli and for treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
    • Rifaximin
    • Xifaxan
  117. Q: Sphingosine 1-phosphate receptor modulator useful in MS
    • Fingolimod
    • Gilenya
  118. Q: Most poorly tolerated of HIV protease inhibitors, severe diarrhea, flu-like symptoms, Potent CYP 3A/2D6 inhibitor, capsules must be refrigerated
  119. Q: Anti-mitotic spindle poison that stabilizes and promotes microtubule assembly
    • Docetaxel
    • Toxotere
  120. Q: Partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, most successful agent used in tobacco cessation therapy
    • Varenicline
    • Chantix
  121. Q: Monoclonal antibody product which targets the RANKL protein that is responsible for production of osteoclasts used in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at high risk of fracture
    • Denosumab
    • Xgena
  122. Q: Cellular proliferation (mTor) inhibitor that is a component of drug eluting stents
    • Paclitaxel
    • Abraxane
  123. Q: Anti-depressant useful in aiding smoking cessation therapy, watch for seizures
    • Bupropion
    • Wellbutrin
  124. Q: treatment of bacterial enterocolititis or other serious gram (+) infection--resistance via D-lactate or D-serine substitution
    • Vancomycin
    • Vancocin
Card Set
Quiz Questions
Questions about top 200 drugs pulled from previous med chem quizzes
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