Unit 1 (Standard of Ethics)

  1. LABEL:
    Image Upload 2
    • A. Moral Beliefs
    • B. Ethical Codes
    • C. Professional Ethics
    • D. Code of Ethics
    • E. Rules of Ethics
  2. What is the purpose (primary and secondary) of the Standard of Ethics?
    • To protect the public
    • defines what it means to be qualified via the education, ethics, and examination requirements for ARRT certification (as part of the equation for excellence)
  3. What is the ARRT Mission Statement?
    Promote high standards of patient care by recognizing qualified individuals in medical imaging, interventional procedures, and radiation therapy.
  4. What is covered in each part of the Standard of Ethics (A, B, and C)?
    • A. the code of ethics
    • B. the rules of ethics
    • C. administrative procedures
  5. What serves as a guide by which candidates for certification and Registered Technologists may evaluate their professional conduct as it relates to patients, healthcare consumers, employers, colleagues, and other members of the healthcare team?
    The Code of Ethics
  6. What are the mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct, covering acts of omission, acts of commision, and all of which are enforceable?
    The Rules of Ethics
  7. How many Rules of Ethics are there?
  8. In our Standard of Ethics, what can be compared to the "due process" of the legal system?
    Administrative Procedures
  9. Know the Code of Ethics, in order. List them in their brief form:
    • 1. professional conduct
    • 2. providing services with full respect
    • 3. delivering patient care free from discrimination
    • 4. practicing technology appropriately
    • 5. acting in the best interest of the patient
    • 6. acting as the physician's agent
    • 7. minimizing radiation exposure
    • 8. conducting oneself ethically
    • 9. respecting privacy
    • 10. continually improving knowledge and skills
  10. Rule # 1: Using fraud or deceit in obtaining ARRT registration,  state license, or employment.

    Give an example we discussed (2):
    • indicating on a resume that one is certified or registered with ARRT when one is not
    • using the initials R.T. behind your name when not registered.
  11. Rule # 2: Subverting or attempting to subvert ARRT's examination process.

    Give an example we discussed:
    • cheating on the test
    • discussing or providing answers to the test to other students, former students, or educators
  12. Rule # 3: convictions, court proceedings, charges or military court-martials...

    Give two exceptions we discussed:
    • no speeding, parking or other traffic violations (unless they also include drugs/alcohol, like a DUI)
    • no juvenile records
  13. Rule # 4: Failure to report charges or sanctions by other licensing or certification agencies.

    Give an example we discussed:
    Ex. If a nurse with a revoked license tried to enter radiography without disclosing revoked nurse's license
  14. Rule # 5: Performing procedures which the individual is not competent to perform through appropriate training and/or education and experience unless assisted or supervised by someone who is competent.

    Give an example we discussed:
    failing to properly shield an elderly patient because you think that doing so wouldn't really make a difference.
  15. Rule # 6: Engaging in unprofessional conduct, including departing from acceptable rules or standards regarding the practice of radiologic technology.

    Give an example we discussed:
    accessing a patient's records for personal use
  16. Rule # 7: Delegating or accepting delegation of an activity that could reasonably create an unnecessary danger to a patient.

    Give an example we discussed:
    performing a procedure you're not qualified to do.
  17. Rule # 8: Actual or potential inability to practice radiologic technology with reasonable skill and safety because of illness or abuse of alcohol, drugs, or other materials.

    Give an example we discussed:
    • prescription or non-prescription drug use 
    • duh. this one's very obvious.
  18. Rule # 9: Adjudicated as mentally incompetent or mentally ill, chemically dependent, or dangerous to the public.

    Give a reminder we discussed:
    this has to be determined by a court of law, not you or your family
  19. Rule # 10: Engaging in unethical conduct likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

    Give the main example discussed and two more:
    • Indicating that you did the QC check on a monitor or processor when you haven't.
    • diverting drugs from a facility
    • not following facility protocols (leaving pt. unattended, injection of contrast, etc)
  20. Rule # 11: Engaging in conduct with a patient that is sexual or may reasonably be interpreted as sexual.

    Give an (obvious) example we discussed:
    telling a patient you think he/she is sexy.
  21. Rule # 12: Revealing privileged communication from or relating to a former or current patient.

    Give an example discussed in class:
    discussing a patient's results with a third party (except when otherwise required or permitted by law)
  22. Rule # 13: knowingly participating or assisting in fraudulent billing practices.

    Give an example we discussed (2):
    • Medicare/Medicaid fraud
    • intentially billing for services that were never performed
  23. Rule # 14: Improper management of patient records.

    Give an example we discussed (2):
    • altering patient records to cover up a mistake
    • not keeping enough records; not documenting
  24. Rule # 15: Allowing a person without appropriate authority to practice radiologic technology.

    Give an example we discussed (2):
    • allowing someone who doesn't have a valid state license or ARRT certification if required by that state and/or facility
    • allowing a parent to make the exposure while you hold their child for an xray
  25. Rule # 16: Violating a rule adopted by any state board or federal or state law relating to the practice of radiologic technology, or a narcotics or controlled-substance law.

    Give an example we discussed (2):
    • violations of HIPAA, state, and/or federal drug and alcohol laws
    • taking narcotics from a facility
  26. Rule # 17: Providing false or misleading information related to the care of a patient.

    Give an example we discussed:
    if a patient falls off an x-ray table while in your care and you deny it.
  27. Rule # 18: Subverting or aiding others to subvert ARRT's continuing education requirements.

    **This rule is different in our notes.
    but duh, do your CEUs yourself, don't help others do theirs. don't cheat. yadayadayada.
  28. Rule # 19: Making a false statement or knowlingly providing false information to the ARRT or failing to cooperate with an investigation.

    Give an example we discussed:
    ignoring a letter from the Ethics Department in the hopes that it will go away
  29. Rule # 20: Engaging in false or misleading communication regarding a person's education, training, experience, or qualifications.

    Give examples we discussed (6):
    • submitting CEUs you didn't earn
    • falsifying clinical experience documentation
    • submitting an invalid ARRT card or state license
    • indicating that you are registered/certified when you are not
    • indicating that you are certified in a modality that you are not
    • using the R.T. credential string when you are not registered
  30. Rule # 21: Knowing of a violation or probable violation and failing to report it.

    Give an example we discussed:
    not reporting to your supervisor that your co-worker took x-rays of a family member without an order from a licensed provider
  31. Rule # 22: Failing to immediately report to a supervisor an error made in connection with imaging, treating, or caring for a patient.

    Give an example we discussed:
    • not reporting if a wrong dosage is injected
    • not reporting if an incorrect area was imaged
  32. List the three questions of importance that appear on your application to take the ARRT registry:
    • Have you ever been convicted of a misdemeanorfelony, or a similar offense in a military court-martial?
    • Have you had any license, registration, or certification denied, revoked, suspended, placed on probation, or subjected to discipline by a regulatory authority or certification board (other thant ARRT)?
    • Have you ever been suspended, dismissed, or expelled from an education program that you attended in order to meet ARRT certification requirements?
  33. What is FERPA?
    the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, 20 U.S.C. Section 1232g

    FERPA is the act under which the student can release his school information/records to ARRT.
  34. generally accepted customs of right living and conduct and an individual's practice in relation to these customs:
    moral beliefs (ethical viewpoints of society)
  35. Name two main influences that can influence a person's moral beliefs:
    • religion
    • culture
    • ** moral beliefs can change
  36. Who developed the three stages of moral development, when, and what are they?
    • Lawrence Kohlberg (Kohlberg's Theory, the 70s)
    • preconventional: ages 2-7
    • conventional: ages 7-12
    • postconventional: ages 12 and over
  37. Describe stage one of Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development:
    • ages 2-7
    • child has no real understanding of values, accepts authority of others
    • the focus is on personal satisfaction (self-centered)
    • learn from experience, obedience, punishment
  38. Describe stage two of Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development:
    • ages 7-12
    • conformity with expectations of family, group, nation to win approval of authority figures
    • focus fixed on rules, social order, respect for authority
    • idea of rules can be very rigid, ex. tattling
  39. Describe stage three of Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development:
    • ages 12 and up
    • focus is the development of the social construct and autonomous decisions apart from authorities
    • child establishes a social-contract
    • abstract concepts like justice and respect for others become important
    • one's conscious becomes the final arbiter in ethical dilemmas 
  40. Give four ways to define ethics:
    • the system or code of conduct and morals advocated by a particular individual or group
    • a systematic reflection on morality
    • study of acceptable conduct and moral judgement
    • a system of understanding determinations and motivation based on individual conception of right and wrong.
  41. includes duties and obligations places on us by our profession:
    group ethical behavior
  42. What is the difference between morals and ethics?
    • moral principles give us a sense of right and wrong and the desire to do the right thing; they influence our professional ethics
    • professional ethics define correct moral behavior in the context of performing professional duties; more structured and defined.
  43. When did ethics begin? and how did it evolve?
    • in prehistoric times, when people recognized that the individual's behavior affected the rest of the group/society
    • began as customs, then laws were developed as established customs were deviated from.
    • ethics, while usually stable, can change
    • **you are not competent as a technologist if you have no ethical principles
  44. the branch of ethics dealing with dilemmas faced by medical professionals, patients, and their families and friends:
    biomedical ethics
  45. What are today's biomedical ethics based on?
    • the natural law ethics of Saint Thomas Aquinas:
    • people could discover moral principles, which may be described as objective truths, simply by exploring the nature of things and applying reason. "The ability to reason is a unique God-given trait."
  46. ethical decisions of healthcare that involve determination for the use of a specific resource and who will receive that resource:
    • microethics (microallocation)
    • ex. who will receive scarce resources such as intensive care beds, dialysis services, solving problems like abortions, ventilators, feeding tubes
  47. ethical decisions of healthcare that occur at a higher level, where determinations are made for all individuals within a certain group regardless of the types of individuals making up the group:
    • macroethics (macroallocation)
    • decisions made by congress, state legislators, insurance companies, private foundations, and healthcare organization
  48. Name the seven principles of Biomedical Ethics with brief descriptions:
    • autonomy: respect for the pt as a person able to make his own decisions
    • beneficence: performance of good acts
    • confidentiality: duty to protect the privacy of the patient
    • justice: moral rightness
    • nonmaleficence: avoidance of evil
    • role fidelity: faithfulness and loyalty
    • veracity: obligation to tell the truth and not to lie
  49. What is the purpose of the Code of ethics?
    To present a frame work for a systematic examination of beliefs that may lead the technologist to an understanding of personal   and professional morality and responsibility.
  50. What does the development of a Code of Ethics signify?
    it is one of the identifying steps in the sequence of the transformation of a semi-profession into a profession.
  51. List four characteristics of a well designed ethical code:
    • Lists the principles and rules defining ethically sound practice.
    • Encourages professionals to consider the implications of their actions.
    • Educates outsiders about the sort of care they may expect.
    • Serves a regulatory function by specifying a standard of conduct by which all members of a profession must abide
    • ** Many certifying bodies in imaging have their own code of ethics
  52. Who developed the ASRT Code of Ethics?
    developed and jointly adopted by ASRT and ARRT
  53. ***NOTE: slides 20-30 re-cover the 10 Code of Ethics and stuff that was in that powerpoint we already covered. I did not make new flashcards for them because it felt redundant. Look over them in your powerpoint slides if you want to review the details.
    • just for fun:
    • Image Upload 4
  54. "purposeful, self-regulatory judgement which results in interpretation, analysis, evaluation, and inference"
    critical thinking
  55. critical thinking is an ethical problem solving tool allowing the professional to (3):
    • adequately interpret and analyze ethical theories and models
    • evaluate the application of those theories and models to a given situation
    • plan an appropriate course of action
  56. In the origins of ethics, what came about in the 1700s BC and by whom?
    • the beginning of physicians' practices and medications
    • with the Babylonians, Egyptians, Persians
  57. In the origin of ethics, what came about in the 5th and 6th centuries BC and by whom?
    • early moral philosophy
    • first developed by Pythagoras, who also influenced the Hippocratic Oath
    • Hippocrates is given credit for the Hippocratic Oath.
  58. What do we consider to be one of the first professional Code of Ethics?
    the Hippocratic Oath, which focuses on "First, do no harm..."
  59. In the evolution of ethics, what came about in the 4th century BC and by whom?
    Plato provided the theory of morality and the influence it has on human behavior: we act according to our moral beliefs
  60. In the evolution of ethics, what came about in the 14th century and by whom?
    Saint Thomas Aquinas provided the world an ethical theory based on religion, put for in the "Natural Law Theory" of the Roman Catholic Church.
  61. In the evolution of ethics, what began to come about in the 14th and 15th centuries?
    • physicians began to examine their own educational needs
    • the plagues of the time made them recognize their moral duties to their patients
    • this increased awareness lead to the formation of professional associations which eventually developed specific qualifications and educational requirements for their fields.
  62. Who were considered to be the Fathers of traditional ethical theories and what time period were they from?
    • 16th-19th centuries
    • Sir Francis Bacon
    • Immanual Kant, Jeremy Bentham, and John Stuart Mills
    • Rodericus Castro
    • David Hume
  63. What is Sir Francis Bacon accredited for?
    • established three main goals of healthcare:
    • the preservation of health
    • the cure of disease
    • the prolongation of life
  64. What is Immanual Kant accredited for?
    • developing one of the two most common traditional ethical theories:
    • Deontology
  65. What are Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mills accredited for?
    • developing one of the two most common traditional ethical theories:
    • Utilitarianism
  66. What is Rodericus Castro accredited for?
    recognizing the responsibilities of the physician to the public
  67. What is David Hume accredited for?
    development of community organizations; public health; national goals
  68. an ethical school of thought that bases decision-making on individual motives and morals rather than consequences and examines the significance of actions themselves.
  69. an ethical school of thought that bases decisions on the consequences or outcome; "the greater good for the greater amount of people"
    utilitarianism (the ends justifies the means)
  70. In the evolution of ethics, what came about in the 20th century and by whom?
    • "the birth of bioethics"
    • W.D. Ross (Oxford)
    • John Rawls (Harvard)
    • Lawrence Kohlberg
  71. What is W.D. Ross accredited for?
    • developed a set of rules geared toward governing professional behavior
    • (Oxford)
  72. What is John Rawls accredited for?
    • principle of justice - used the strengths and weaknesses of common ethical theories to derive a set of principles providing equal liberty for all while addressing the needs of the less fortunate
    • (Harvard)
  73. A quality or standard that is desirable or worthy of esteem in itself and is expressed in behaviors, language, and the standards of conduct the imaging professional endorses or tries to maintain:
  74. What is Louis Rath accredited for?
    • developed Values Clarification:
    • allows us to develop alternatives
    • enables us to discover, analyze, prioritize
  75. Values Clarification encourages us to make decisions based on these three areas of concern:
    • choosing or making the decision
    • prioritize after decision is made
    • acting
  76. ____________ determine both personal and professional ethics, and are often prioritized differently for different individuals.
  77. Name the three groups of values:
    • personal
    • cultural
    • professional
  78. Beliefs and attitudes held by an individual that provide a foundation for behavior and the way the individual experiences life:
    personal values
  79. Beliefs and attitudes specific to a people; a communal system that is held by and applied to a community/group/society:
    cultural values
  80. General attributes prized by a professional group:
    professional values
  81. An awareness of the conduct, aims, and qualities defining a given profession:
  82. Traditional ethical theories are divided into these three schools of thought:
    • Utilitarianism (Consequentialism or Teleology)
    • Deontology (Nonconsequentialism)
    • Virtue Ethics
  83. An ethical school of thought in which decisions are based on the consequences or outcomes of a given act; the good of an activity is evaluated based on whether immediate harm is balanced with future benefits:
    Utilitarianism (Consequentialism or Teleology)
  84. Which ethical school of thought is greatly concerned with numbers?
    Utilitarianism (Consequentialism or Teleology)
  85. Give two examples of Utilitarianism we discussed:
    • Ex. They may not put the most critical patient first if there is a disaster with a large number of patients. Instead, they would take care of the majority first and the most critical last.
    • Ex. If reducing staffing in a department, they might let the employee go who made the most money in order to save
    • more people from losing their job.
  86. Give two catchphrases that summarize the Utilitarianism (Consequentialism or Teleology) school of thought:
    • the ends justifies the means
    • the greatest good for the greatest amount of people
  87. An ethical school of thought that bases decision making on individual motives and morals rather than consequences and examines the significance of actions themselves:
    Deontology (Nonconsequentialism)
  88. Which ethical school of thought uses personal rules of right and wrong in decision-making?
    • Deontology (Nonconsequentialism)
    • (they strictly go by what is right and what is fair and not the consequences)
  89. Give two examples of Deontology we discussed:
    Ex. When reducing staff they would probably let the last one hired go because they are going to feel a sense of loyalty to the person who has been there the longest. Ex. They would put the most critical patient first if there is a disaster with a large number of patients, not prioritizing the majority over the ones in most need of help.
  90. Who developed Deontology and what was it based on?
    • Immanuel Kant
    • based on Thomas Aquinas's natural law ethics
    • (nothing is good in and of itself except a "good will")
  91. With Deontology, Kant held that morality is derived from ___________. Therefore:
    • rationality/reason
    • Universal truths apply to all people, for all times, in all situations.
  92. A concisely expressed principle or rule of conduct, or a statement of general truth:
    (give example)
    • a maxim
    • Kant (Deontology): "We must always treat others as ends and not as means only"
  93. An ethical school of that that focuses on the use of practical wisdom and moral character  for emotional and intellectual problem solving and considers careful analysis and consideration of consequences, rules established by society, and short term effects:
    Virtue Ethics
  94. Five models used in ethical decision-making:
    • Engineering - provider views the patient as condition or procedure
    • Paternal/Priestly - Provider thinks he or she knows what is best for patients
    • Collegial- Mutual cooperation between provider and patient.
    • Contractual -Business relationship where provider and patient both have obligations, rights, and responsibilities
    • Covenantal Agreement between provider and patient grounded on traditional values
  95. A brochure published by the AHA (American Hospital Association) to help patients understand expectations, rights, and responsibilities:
    The Patient Care Partnership
  96. Involves a situation in which there is more than one ethical solution to the problem:
    ethical dilemma
  97. Problems that arise in association with the distribution of benefits and burdens on a societal basis. In healthcare it involves the allocation of scarce resources:
    ethical dilemma of justice
  98. Created when there is an obvious correct solution to an ethical problem but institutional constraints prohibit the correct solution from being applied:
    ethical distress
  99. Occurs when there are questions regarding who is responsible or under whose authority something falls or who has legal authority to make decision for a patient:
    Locus of Authority Issue
  100. List the steps of the Dowd Problem Solving Model, in order (6):
    • Assessment of the problem
    • Isolation of the issues
    • Analysis of the data
    • Development of a plan of action
    • Institution of the plan
    • Analysis of the outcome
  101. A body of rules of action or conduct prescribed by controlling authority and having binding legal force:
  102. What is the basis of our law?
    And name the exception to this:
    • Common Law from England, but it has been molded by statutes and judicial decisions since the birth of the U.S.
    • exception: Louisiana (Roman Law and Napoleonic Code)
  103. All the laws and statutes put into place by elected officials:
  104. A wrongful act where there is injury or damage for which a civil action can be brought:
  105. What could result if a tort is classified as a criminal wrong (like assault, battery, false imprisonment)?
    the wrong doer could be held liable in a criminal action suit as well as a civil action.
  106. The body of law that describes the private rights and responsibilities of individuals; the part of the law that does not deal with crimes; involves actions filed by one person against another:
    civil law
  107. What is the origin of the Tort of Negligence?
    found in the liability of those who profess to be competent in certain "public" callings (duty of care).
  108. When can negligence be found against someone?
    can be found under current law only if a duty is owed, that duty is breached, and demonstrable harm has resulted from the breach.
  109. Includes all laws enacted by federal, state, city and county governments; developed in response to perceived needs for social regulation:
    statutory law (can be formed, set by a precedent)
  110. The standard in which a physician must disclose to a patient information that a reasonable medical practitioner similarly situated would disclose:
    physician-based standard
  111. The standard in which a physician must disclose information that a reasonable patient needs to make an informed decision:
    reasonable patient standard
  112. Is a product of common law, statutory law, and judicial decisions; can vary depending on the jurisdiction:
    current law
  113. Name three components of the legal system that impact the
    medical imaging sciences:
    • Administrative Law
    • Criminal Law
    • Civil Law
  114. Deals with licensing and regulation penalties for violation; can include suspension and revocation of license:
    Administrative Law
  115. Addresses wrongs against the state; penalties for violation can include fines, restitution, community service, and incarceration:
    Criminal Law
  116. Addresses wrongs committed by one party harming another; penalties for violation can include monetary damages to compensate for loss and as punishment:
    Civil Law
  117. What is the tort most often encountered by imaging professionals?
  118. The negligence or carelessness of a professional person:
  119. What is the differnece between Ordinary Neglegence and Gross Neglegence?
    • Ordinary negligence: failure to do what a prudent person would or would not do, under the circumstances of the act or omission in question
    • Gross Negligence: intentional or wanton omission of care that would be proper to provide or the doing of that which would be improper to do so. (something really bad; basically a complete disregard for human life)
  120. List seven common types of torts:
    • assault (threaten)
    • battery (touching without consent)
    • false imprisonment
    • defamation (false statements that damage a reputation)
    • negligence
    • lack of informed consent
    • breach of patient confidentiality
  121. What is the 1st phase of a lawsuit and what happens in it?
    • Pleading Phase:
    • complaint filed by plaintiff (court is petitioned)
    • defendent is "served" with notice of the filing of the law suit
    • defendent must file a written answer within a set amount of time
  122. What is the 2nd phase of a lawsuit and what happens in it?
    • Discovery Phase:
    • Facts are sought in written (interrogatories) or oral (depositions) form, under oath.
    • A trial decision is made.
    • (most cases settle out of court)
  123. Who all is usually involved in settlement negotiations:
    • attorneys for the plaintiff, defendent, and defendent's insurance company (and the parties themselves)
    • sometimes negotiators/mediators
  124. Time limitations in which lawsuits can be brought against a physician or other health professional; they vary with jurisdiction:
    • Statute of Limitations
    • (restrictions are placed on attorneys to file such lawsuits only after a reasonable inquiry has been made with regard to the facts of the claim)
  125. Name two things that can be done in an attempt to minimize the risk of litigation:
    • Document, obtain informed consents, maintain patient confidentiality, practice radiation   protection, and maintain a safe environment for patients and employees.
    • Set in place a risk management team. The system for identifying, analyzing, and evaluating risks and selecting the most advantageous method for treating them.
  126. What is the goal of Risk Management?
    To maintain quality patient care and conserve the facility’s financial resources.
  127. What are the functions of Risk Management (3)?
    • Elimination of the causes of loss experienced by the hospital and its patients, employees, and visitors
    • Lessening of the operational and financial effects of unavoidable losses
    • Covering of inevitable losses at the lowest cost
  128. A process to assess quality of patient care:
    Quality Assurance
  129. How does Quality Assurance assess patient care?
    Considers a wide range of concerns and uses hospital committees to oversee the quality of various hospital functions.
  130. Functions performed by Quality Assurance committees:
    Ranges from overseeing the quality and necessity of surgery to the determination of which doctors may practice in the hospital and what procedures they may perform.
  131. What is the difference between Quality Assurance and Risk Management?
    • The focus of Quality Assurance is on the quality of the medical care and how it can be improved. 
    • Risk management relates more to the physicalfacility and the risks involved with accidents; it is more accident prevention.
  132. An institute of medicine report published in 2003 targeted 20 areas that needed improvement. This and input from the dr. organizations resulted in what law?
    the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005
  133. List four sources that influence our personal and professional attitudes:
    • Science
    • Culture
    • Religion
    • Experience
  134. List ten core values (ethics standards):
    • Accountability
    • Caring
    • Fairness
    • Honesty
    • Integrity
    • Loyalty
    • Promise keeping
    • Pursuit of excellence
    • Respect for others
    • Responsible citizenship
  135. Four types of ethical dilemma of justice problems:
    • "Distributive justice"
    • "Compensatory"
    • "Corrective"
    • "Retributive"
  136. Name four agencies involved in the development and issuance of laws, policies, rules, and decisions concerning health care at the macro level:
    • Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) 
    • National Institutes of Health(NIH)
    • Office of Technology assessment(OTA)
    • United States Supreme Court
  137. An attempt on the part of someone in an organization to disclose or call attention to some perceived wrongdoing in the organization:
  138. Name and define two types of "whistleblowing":
    • Internal – informing higher management about problems by going over the boss’s head
    • External – informing an outside body, such as a regulatory agency or newspaper reporter
  139. Name three questions to ask yourself before whistleblowing:
    • 1.  How serious is the unethical or illegal behavior?
    • 2.  What is the strength of the evidence?
    • 3.  What are the normal channels for resolving the issue?
Card Set
Unit 1 (Standard of Ethics)
Unit 1. Do not rely solely upon these cards. last revised 2012.