Test 1.7

  1. Which of the following ECG findings would indicate a possible pacemaker failure?




    B. Pacemaker spikes without associated QRS complexes
  2. On a properly calibrated ECG machine, 1 mV is equivalent to a height of _____ boxes.




    B. ten small
  3. Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY cause of PEA?




    D. hypertension
  4. Which of the following is most commonly associated with multifocal atrial tachycardia?




    B. pulmonary disease
  5. An accelerated junctional rhythm has a rate between _____ and _____.




    D. 60 - 100
  6. A decrease in preload results in a(n):




    D. decrease in cardiac output
  7. The mitral valve is also known as the _____ valve.




    B. left atrioventricular
  8. An early sign of hyperkalemia is:




    D. tall peaked T waves on an ECG
  9. The pericardial sac normally holds about _____ mL of ______.




    A. 25, straw-colored lubricant
  10. The predominant effect of a drug with primarily alpha properties would result in which of the following?




    A. vasoconstriction
  11. Your patient is a 55 year-old male who is in moderate distress and complaining of chest pain. He states that he experienced an acute onset of left-sided crushing chest pain while playing basketball with his grandson.  He complains of weakness and near-syncope with exertion.  His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic.  HR=40, BP=72/40, RR=20, SaO2=95%.  The monitor shows a third-degree AV block.  Which of the following is most appropriate?




    A. sedation and transcutaneous pacing
  12. A patient's ECG shows regular RR intervals of 0.48 seconds, a PR interval of 0.12 seconds, and a QRS of 0.08 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:




    C. sinus tachycardia
  13. Increased _____ does NOT occur due to increased venous return to the heart.




    A. afterload
  14. Which of the following is NOT a consideration when deciding to withhold resuscitative efforts?




    C. patient's age
  15. Which of the following is most likely to be associated  with torsades de pointes?




    D. concomitant use of an antidysrhythmic and antihistamine
  16. Which of the following features distinguishes a PAC from a PVC?




    A. a PVC is usually followed by a fully compensatory pause, while a PAC is not
  17. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 40, regular RR intervals, a varying PR interval, and a QRS of 0.28 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:




    D. third-degree AV block
  18. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 42, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.16 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds.  This vest fits the criteria for:




    B. sinus bradycardia
  19. Which of the following best describes the physiology of anastomoses?




    A. provide collateral circulation of the myocardium
  20. Which of the following can be determined by lead II cardiac monitoring?




    D. impulse conduction time
  21. An action potential begins  in a myocardial cell when _____ enters the cell, giving it a _____ charge.




    D. sodium, positive
  22. A positive dromotropic agent will:




    C. increase the speed  of impulse conduction through the myocardium
  23. The most serious characteristic of PVCs according to the Lown grading system is:




    C. R on T phenomenon
  24. Slowing of the electrical impulse at the AV node is necessary to allow time for the _____ to fill with blood.




    D. ventricles
  25. At standard speed a 1 mm box on ECG paper represents _____ seconds.




    C. 0.04
  26. Artifacts such as muscle tremors can make assessment of a paced rhythm difficult because:




    B. artifacts can obscure the pacer spikes
  27. There are three large boxes between R waves on an ECG tracing.  What is the heart rate?




    C. 100
  28. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and portions of the cardiac conduction system?




    D. left coronary
  29. The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the:




    B. myocardium
  30. A patient's ECG shows a rhythm at a rate of 64, regular RR intervals, a PR interval of 0.24 seconds, and a QRS of 0.12 seconds.  This best fits the criteria for:




    A. first-degree AV block
  31. The appearance of a pathological Q wave on an ECG indicates the presence of _____ tissue.




    D. infarcted
  32. Which of the following describes the ability of a cardiac cell to propagate the electrical impulse to another cell?




    A. conductivity
  33. BNP is a hormone that is:




    B. released when the ventricle is stretched
  34. A patient with WPW may experience dysrhythmias secondary to a disturbance in what conduction pathway?




    A. Bundle of Kent
  35. Without careful management a patient with WPW may degrade into what lethal dysrhythmia?




    D. ventricular fibrillation
Author
Ritameeker
ID
216326
Card Set
Test 1.7
Description
Test 1.7 - Cardiology
Updated