clin tech

  1. test kits frequently used in private practice that use a color change to diagnose disesase such as caine parvo, feline leukemia and influenza are all examples of:




    B) ELISA
  2. testing that detects the concentration of antobody and therefore an animals immune response to  a certain infecting agents (usually virus) is often referred to as




    A) Serology
  3. Humoral Immunity deals mostly with ____ lymphocytes where as Cell mediated immunity deals mostly with _____ lymphocytes




    C) B-cell, T-cell
  4. Which of the following is a test of cell mediated immunity




    C) Tuberculin skin test
  5. _______ is a treat for autoimmune disorders




    C) Coombs
  6. ____ is a test used to back up or clarify results found in in-house testing




    C) RIM
  7. These test contain Colloidal Gold in conjunction with antibodies




    D) RIM
  8. These tests are used to diagnose Equine Infectious Anemia in horses and its uses agar plated as a test media

    A) CELISA
    B) Immunidiffusion
    C) Latex Agglutnation
    D) RIM
    B) Immunidiffusion
  9. The heartworm test we use here at the school comes from which group of test




    A) ELISA
  10. Canine Brucellosis testing falls under which category of test?




    D) Latex Agglutination
  11. the urine of animal with hematuria is most likely to be _____




    D) cloudy and red
  12. specific gravity is ______




    A) weight of urine compared with the weight of water
  13. the best time to collect  a sample for urinalysis is _____




    B) morning
  14. urine sample collested in the morning tend to be




    A) more concentrated, thus increasing the chance of observing abnormalities
  15. what are the two preferred methods of collecting a urine sample




    C) cystocentesis and catherterization
  16. polyuria is ____




    C) production of excessive amount of urine
  17. oliguria is _____




    C) decreased urine output
  18. anuria is ____




    B) complete lack of urine production
  19. how does the specific gravity of dilute, colorless urine compare with that of dark yellow




    D) lower
  20.  a urine ph above 7.0 is____




    C. alkaline urine
  21. which statement concerning ph is least accurate




    D. it is measured with a refactometer
  22. a urine specimen collected at 8 am and left at room temperature until the afternoon could be expected to have _____




    B. increased number of bacteria
  23. specific gravity is a measure of ____




    D. density
  24. dark yellow urine generally has a ____




    C. high specific gravity
  25. carnivores generally have _____




    C. alkaline urine
  26. the sulfasalicylic acid test of urine is used to detect ______




    C. protein
  27. this is a type of urinary catheter _____




    D. all of the above
  28. the renal threshold for dogs is approximately _____




    D. 170-180 mg/dl
  29. glucosuria can be caused by ______




    D. all of the above
  30. this occurs when there has been muscle damage




    D. myoglobinuria
  31. this type of bilirubin is not found in the urine because it will not pass through the glomerulus




    B. unconjugated bilirubin
  32. most of this bile pigment is excreted in the feces but some is absorbed into the bloodstream and excreted into urine




    B. urovilinogen
  33. infection or inflammaion in the urinary tract causes _____.




    C. pyuria
  34. an animal with acute renal disease would probably have ____ in their urine




    C. protein
  35. this is usually absent in normal urine that is collected via catheterization or cystocentesis




    C. protein
  36. kidneys that loose their filtering ability are expected to have a ______ specific gravity

    a. lowered
    b. higher
    a. lowered
  37. a good specific gravity for a dog would be ____




    D. 1.030
  38. this device is very useful in restraining cats for drawing blood or for giving SQ fluids




    C. cat bag
  39. this type of record is most commonly used by most teaching hospitals

    a. source-oriented
    b. problem-oriented
    a. source-oriented
  40. the _____ valve is located on the left side of the heart




    D. mitral
  41. what is not a route of injection




    B. anteroposterior
  42. the signalmant of the animal is the




    D. all of the above
  43. the client is usually most concered with the "chief of complaint", which is:




    A. the reason the client brought the animal in
  44. concering the veterinary technician's role in the history- taking process of a patient, which is most accurate?




    C. even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history
  45. which fatal canine infectious disease often begin with mucoid eye and nose discharged




    D. caine distemper
  46. feline leukemia is spread between cats primarily by _____ and feline immunodefiency virus by




    D. close contact, bite wound
  47. true or false
    as in large animals, kittens and puppies rely heavily on the ingestion of colostrium (first milk) to obtain protect ion from infectious diseases
    true
  48. vaccines given by the ___ route can produce mild clinical diseases




    C. IM
  49. true or false
    healthy geriatric dogs  need not continue to be vacinated yearly for certain disease
    false
  50. true or false
    because corticosteroids suppress the immune system vaccinating animals who have received them are usually ineffective
    true
  51. what disease can infect personnel who accidently ingest the urine of an infected dog even if the dog is vaccinated and showing no clinical signs of the disease




    C. leptospirosis
  52. in general zoonotic diseases that cause diarrhea are spread to human by accidental ingestion of infection




    D. feces
  53. glaucoma is diagnosed with ___ that measures




    C. a tonometer, the pressure inside the eyeball
  54. what is a cateract




    B. a focal or diffuse opacity within the lens
  55. fluorescein dye is most often used ti diagnose




    C. corneal ulcers or scatches
  56. true or false
    eye pain of corneal cloudiness should be considered a medical emergency
    true
  57. eyes are open by _____ in kittens and puppies




    C. day 14
  58. grid keratotomy is a surgical procedure to treat which condition?




    B. corneal ulcer
  59. keratoconjunctiontivtis sicca is best diagnosed using:




    C. schirmer tests
  60. the drug of choice to treat KCS is




    A. cyclosporine
  61. the drug of choice to treat glaucoma is:




    A. pilokair 2%
  62. fluid administratio in tiny puppy




    C. intraosseous
  63. administration of some vaccines




    C. intranasal
  64. administration of emergency cardio pulmonary resuscitative drug




    B. intratracheal
  65. always wear gloves when administering medication




    C. that will be absorbed into skin
  66. concerning subcutaneous adminitration of fluids and medication which statement is most accurate




    C. if multiple vaccinations or medications are to be administered, space injetion several centimeters apart
  67. to avoid penetrating the sciatic nerve during an IM injection into the hind leg of a cat or dog place the needle




    B. into the lateral semimenbranosus muscles and direct in caudally
  68. how might you administer and anti-seizure drug to a convulsing animals in which you are unable to access a vein?




    A. intrarectally
  69. oral medications are best administered to cat by



    C. placing the pill at the back of the cats pharynex and holding the mouth closed until the patients swollows
  70. aural administration refers to the _____




    A. ears
  71. this is an effective and easy way to give isotonic fluids




    d oral
    C. SQ
  72. why would you not want to use steriods on a patients eye
    because it makes the ulcer worse
  73. If used improperly, which restraint device is most likely to case broken bones?



    D. capture pole
  74. To collect blood from the cephalic vein of a dog or cat, you should place the animal in..



    C. a sitting position and steady a front leg
  75. When placing a cat in a cat bag, which step is first?



    A. place the bag on the table
  76. Observing its body language, an aggresive dog will



    C. hold its head low between the shoulders
  77. To protect yourself if attacked by a dog you should



    D. roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms
  78. when confronted by a dog inside a kennel that is snarling, growling and lunging at the bars, which restraint device is the safest for you and the dog?



    B. capture pole
  79. The cardinal rule when working with cats is to



    C. make sure doors and windows are firmly locked
  80. Normal behavior for a cat in a new place is to



    D. look around and investigate
  81. Which of these is not a warning sign of an angry cat



    A. rubbing up against the cage bars
  82. A good rule of thumb to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is



    B. apply the minimum effect amount of restraint that will keep the animal and staff safe
  83. An otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggresive toward her human handler when he



    A. appears to be a threat to her suckling young
  84. If a dog is too large for you to lift it up on the table, you should



    C. leave him on the floor to be examined and ask for help
  85. One of the most effective way to capture and restrain an agitated cat is to



    A. grasp the scruff of its neck
  86. The feline's first line of defense is its


    C. claws
  87. The signalment of the animal is the



    D. all of the above
  88. A neurologic examination includes



    D. both evaluation of mentation and postural reaction
  89. A question about whether a dog is on heartworm prevention is part of the dog's



    D. mediaction history
  90. The __ system is th most difficult and time consuming to examine completely, therfore a complete exam is usually not performed unless a problem is suspected



    B. nervous
  91. Which part of the body is included ina completeintegumentary exam



    A. interdigital areas
  92. During the physical exam only observation that appear significant need be recorded
    a. true
    b. false
    b. false
  93. If a scale is available, an animal should be weighed at every visit to the veterinarian
    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  94. Observation of the for nasal discharge often begins the exam for which system



    D. respiratory
  95. Difficulty breathing due to stenotic nares is commonly seen in what kind of dogs



    A. brachiocephalic
  96. The heart rates of small-breed dogs are generally __ than those of large breed dogs



    A. faster
  97. There are __ quadrants for auscultation of the lungs



    C. 9
  98. The normal feline heart rate range from
    a. 60 to 100 bpm
    b. 80 to 120 bpm
    c. 100 to 180 bpm
    d. 140 to 220 bpm
    d 140 to 220 bpm
  99. Heart murmurs are assessed for



    A. loudness, character, and timing
  100. the pulse is most readily available over the




    B. femoral artery
  101. abdominal palpation will most likely reveal




    C. primarily intestines slipping between palpaters fingers
  102. true or false
    the oral cavity of a cat should not be examined when the cat is awake due to the risk of getting bitten
    false
  103. the mitral valve id located on the ____ side of the heart



    A. left
  104. the tricuspid valve is located on the ____ side of the heart



    C. right
  105. the ____ kidney in the dog may not be palpated because it is located more craniodorsally



    A. right
  106. mucous membrane color and CRT refers to which system




    C. circulatory
  107. the normal ocular exam generally includes:




    D. white sclera
  108. the urinary bladder can usally be palpated in which part of the abdomen




    C. caudoventral
  109. icteric mucous membranes suggest:




    B. liver disease and hemolysis
  110. jugualr pulses may indicate




    D. none of the above
  111. assessment of a patients perfusion may best be achieved by



    C. CRT
  112. lymph node enlargement may indicate




    C. neoplasia
  113. why is the skin wiped with 70% iospropyl alcholol before venipuncture




    D. all of the above
  114. you are drawing from a cats medical saphenous vein using 23 gauge needle on a 3ml syringe. the blood begins to fill the syringe then stops flowing one likely cause of the problems is




    C. you have applied too much suction, causing the vein to collapse
  115. when you are performing venipuncture, always use the ____ needle possible for the vein chosen and direct the bevel ____




    B. largest, upwards
  116. the easiest vein from which to draw 10 ml of blood from a 11kg dog is the




    B. jugular vein
  117. when might the lateral saphenous vein be preferred to the cephalic vein for canine venipuncture




    B. when a dog is very aggressive
  118. how does arterial blood collection differ from venous blood collection

    a. it is not necessary to occlude an artery to obtain a blood sample
    b. venous blood will rapidly fill a syringe in a pulsatile manner, while arterial blood must be aspirated using manual pressure on the plunger
    a. it is not necessary to occulde an artery to obtain a blood sample
  119. after making a jugular stick how long do you hold off




    D. 30 sec
  120. if you go too deep with a jug stick ou can hit the ____




    C. caroid
  121. which needle size would be preferred for a jugular draw from a 60 pound lab?




    C. 20ga
  122. how long do you hold off for a cephalic stick




    D. 20sec
  123. what should be periodically infused into an IV catheter to prevent problem



    C. heporin
  124. the vein is good place for venipuncture in the cat for small amount of blood



    C. femoral vein
  125. blood that is bright red in color comes from _____



    B. artery
  126. which needle has the largest interior diameter




    A. 16 ga
  127. when drawing blood from an animal at what point do you remove the tourniquet




    C. before you remove the needle
  128. how long can you leave in an indwelling catheter




    A. 72 hr
  129. the catheter of choice for chemotherapy is the _____

    a. OTN
    b TTN
    c. butterfly catheter
    d dont need one
    c. butterfly catheter
  130. place the following steps of a basic ear cleaning in the correct order
    (1) apply cerumenolytics (2) pluck hair (3) lavage with a bulb syringe and (4) dry ear




    C. 2,1,3,4
  131. requires less time to fill out

    a. source oriented
    b.problem oriented
    a. source oriented
  132. commonly used byy veterinary university teaching hospital

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    b. problem oriented
  133. uses more paper so the record is more bulcky

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    b. problem oriented
  134. generally provied less pretection against potential lability

    a. source oriented
    b. problem oriented
    a. source oriented
  135. which syringe size is best for an arterial stick




    A. 1cc and 3cc
  136. a diaphragmatic hernia may be detected by checking this system




    B. respiratory
  137. list the four groups of lymph nodes  we discussed in class
    • mandibular
    • prescapular
    • popileal
    • axillary
  138. the right kidney of what species is difficult to palpate




    C. dog
  139. what is the preferred size of needle for a jug stick




    B. 20ga
  140. what is the perferred size for adminitrating an IM injection



    B. 25ga
  141. name two possible sites for an arterial blood sample for conscious animals
    • dorsal metatarsal
    • femeral artery
  142. name two possible sites for an arterial blood sample for unconscious animals
    radial and lingual artery
Author
vanessasoto
ID
215467
Card Set
clin tech
Description
clin tech test questions
Updated