1. What is our squadron mission
    To provide a survivable link to the nation's strategic forces.
  2. Where are VQ-4's operating bases
    Tinker-main, DET NAS Patuxtent River, alert DET Offut AFB,
  3. What are the departments at VQ-4 and what are their corresponding codes.
    • Administrative (N1)
    • Operations (N3)
    • Maintanence (N4)
    • Communications (N6)
    • NATOPS (N7)
    • Safety (N8)
    • Professional Development (N9)
  4. What are the three objectives of Fist Aid?
    Prevent Further Injury, infection, and loss of life
  5. What are the four methods of controlling bleeding?
    Direct Pressure, Elevation, Pressure Points, and use of a tourniquet as a last resort.
  6. How many pressure points are on the body?
    22, 11 on each side.
  7. What are the pressure points.
    • Superficial Temporal artery (temple)
    • Facial artery (jaw)
    • Common carotid artery (neck)
    • Subclavian artery (collar bone)
    • Brachial artery (inner uppper arm)
    • Brachial artery (inner elbow)
    • Radial/Ulnar artery (wrist)
    • Femoral artery (upper thigh)
    • Iliac artery (groin)
    • Popliteal artery (knee)
    • Anterior/Posterior tibial artery (ankle)
  8. What are the symptoms of a first degree burn
    Produces redness, warmth and mild pain
  9. What are the symptoms of a second degree burn?
    Causes red, blistered skin and severe pain.
  10. What are the symptoms of a third degree burn?
    Destroys tissue. skin and bone in severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed.
  11. What are the two types of fractures and what is the difference between them?
    Closed, no break in the skin. Open, with a break in the skin and bone protruding.
  12. What are the two types of heat related injuries?
    Heat exhaustion and heat stroke.
  13. What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?
    Skin will be cool, moist and clammy. Pupils will be dilated and the victim will be sweating profusely.
  14. What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
    Hot or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak or rapid pulse. The victim will be unable to sweat.
  15. What is the treatment for heat stroke?
    Move the victim to the coolest possible place and remove as much clothing as possible. Maintain an open airway. Place the victim on his or her back, with the head and shoulders slightly raised. If cold packs are available, place them under the arms, around the neck, at the ankles, and on the groin. Expose the victim to a fan or air-conditioner since drafts will promote cooling. Immersing the victim in a cold water bath is also effective. Give the victim (if conscious) cool water to drink. Do not give any hot drinks or stimulants. Get the victim to a medical facility as soon as possible. Cooling measures must be continued while the victim is being transported.
  16. What are the three types of cold weather injuries?
    Hypothermia, superficial frostbite, and deep frostbite.
  17. Describe the symptoms of hypothermia
    Slow and Shallow breathing, faint or even undetectable pulse. Victim will appear pale and unconscious, and may be taken for dead.
  18. What is the cause of hypothermia?
    Rapidly falling internal body temperature.
  19. Describe the symptoms of superficial frostbite.
    Ice crystals form in the Upper skin. skin will still move over bony ridges.
  20. Describe the symtptoms of deep frostbite
    Ice crystals form in the deeper tissues. Skin feels hard and will not move over bony ridges.
  21. What is the cause of shock?
    Insufficient bloodflow throughout the body.
  22. What are the five types of shock and what are their cause?
    • Septic- bacteria multiply in the blood and release toxins
    • Anaphylactic- allergic reaction
    • Cardiogenic- heart is unable to sufficiently supply blood.
    • Hypovolemic- severe blood and fluid loss
    • Neurogenic- spinal cord injury
  23. What are the three steps of cardiopulmonary resucitation?
  24. What is the survival chain of CPR
    • -Recognition/activation of CPR
    • -Chest compressions
    • -AED/defibrilator
    • -Rapid defibrilation
    • -Effective davanced life support
    • -Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
  25. Define Operational Risk Management
    A decision making process used to identify and manage hazards.
  26. What are the steps in the ORM process?
    • Identify hazards
    • Assess hazards
    • Make Risk Decisions
    • Implement Controls
    • Supervise
  27. What are the three mishap classes and what do they entail?
    • Class A- $2,000,000 or more in damage; a fatality or permanent total disability.
    • Class B- $500,000 or more but less than $2,000,000; Permanent or partial disability involving three or more people
    • Class C- $50,000 or more but less than $500,000
  28. What is PPE and what types are utilized.
    • Personal Protective Equipment.
    • -Cranials
    • -Eye protection
    • -Hearing protection
    • -Impact protection
    • -Gloves
    • -Foot protection
  29. What are the four types of chemical agents?
    • -Nerve Agents
    • -Blister Agents
    • -Blood Agents
    • -Choking Agents
  30. What is used to detect the presence of chemical agents?
    M9 Chemical agent detector paper
  31. What are the two types of biological warfare agents?
    • -Pathogens
    • -Toxins
  32. What individual protective equipment do we use for chemical/biological attack?
    • -Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C2 canister filter)
    • -Advanced chemical protective garment
    • -Chemical protective gloves and liners
    • -Chemical protective overboots and laces
    • -Skin decontamination kit
  33. What are the five types of nuclear explosions?
    • -High altitude
    • -Air Burst
    • -Surface Burst
    • -Shallow underwater
    • -Deep underwater
  34. Define MOPP and it's different levels?
    • Mission Oriented Protective Posture
    • -Level 0: IPE is accessible within five minutes
    • -Level 1: don protective equipment, M9 tape
    • -Level 2: don protective over-boots
    • -Level 3: fill canteens, activate decon stations
    • -Level 4: Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.
  35. What needs to be present for a fire to happen?
    • -Oxygen
    • -Heat
    • -Fuel
    • -Chemical chain reaction
  36. Define the four classes of fire and what is necessary to extinguish them.
    • -Alpha: Combustible materials; water and AFFF
    • -Bravo: Flammable liquids; AFFF, Halon, PKP, and CO2
    • -Charlie: Electrical Fires; CO2, Halon, and PKP
    • -Delta: Combustible metals; Water in large quantities in high velocity fog
  37. What are the five firefighting agents and how do they extinguish a fire?
    • -Aqueous Film Forming Foam-removes oxygen by smothering.
    • -Water- removes heat
    • -Halon 1211- inhibits the chemical reaction
    • -Carbon Dioxide- Displaces oxygen
    • -Potassium Bicarbonate-inhibits the chemical reaction in class B fire. Danger of reflash present.
  38. What safety equipment is required on a flight deck?
    • Steel toed safety shoes
    • Protective jersey
    • Cranial impact helmet
    • Protective goggles
    • Leather gloves
  39. What are taxiways?
    Paved areas for aircraft to travel between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.
  40. What is the runway numbering system?
    A numbering system based on the magnetic heading of the runway rounded off to 10. Ex: 240 degrees will be runway 24, parallel runways will be labeled left or right. Ex: 24L and 24R. If there are three then C for center is added.
  41. What are the color codes associated with flight deck jerseys?
    • Yellow-Air Boss
    • White-Quality Assurance
    • Brown-Plane Captains
    • Blue-Chock Crewman
    • Green-Maintenance and catapult personnel
    • Red-Ordnance
    • Purple-Fuel
  42. What fire fighting stations are located on the flight deck?
    • PKP
    • Saltwater
    • CO2 bottle
    • AFFF
    • Bomb jettison
    • Steam smothering
  43. What are the danger areas associated with aircraft handling?
    • Intakes
    • Exhaust
    • Flight controls
    • Compressed Gases
    • Cryogenics
    • Explosives
    • Hazardous materials
    • Eye
    • Hearing
  44. Why must grounding straps be hooked to the deck first?
    To avoid the static buildup discharging through the person holding the strap.
  45. Where does static buildup occur the most on an airplane?
    The windshield. Static voltages could reach 100,000 volts
  46. What are the different categories of tie downs required for aircraft on the flight deck?
    • Initial tie down-a minimum of 6 chains are required prior to, in between, or immediately after flight.
    • Up to 45 knots-9 chains
    • 46 to 60 knots-14 chains
    • Above 60 knots-20 chains
  47. What is the towing speed of any aircraft?
    Not to Exceed 5 mph or as fast as the slowest walker.
  48. What personnel are required for an aircraft move?
    • Move Director
    • Brake Rider
    • Chock Walker
    • Safety Observers
    • Tractor Driver
  49. What are the different FPCONS and what conditions must exist for them to apply?
    • NORMAL- general global threat
    • ALPHA- increased general threat
    • BRAVO- increased or more predictable threat
    • CHARLIE- when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating action is likely
    • DELTA- occurs in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occured
  50. What are the DEFCON levels?
    • DEFCON 5- Normal peacetime readiness
    • DEFCON 4- Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures
    • DEFCON 3- Increase above normal
    • DEFCON 2- Further increase, but less than maximum
    • DEFCON 1- Maximum force readiness
  51. Who are the key personnel responsible for maintanence?
    • Maintenance Officer- responsible to the CO for the accomplishment of the missions
    • Assistant Maintenance Officer- responsible for manpower and SE training and licensing
    • Maintenance/Material Control Officer- coordinates and monitors the department workload and prepares the MMP
    • Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer- senior enlisted advisor for the maintenance department; directs all maintenance in an operational unit
  52. What are the three levels of maintenance?
    • O level- organizational, performs day to day maintenance of aircraft.
    • I Level- Intermediate, performs component level troubleshooting on equipment.
    • D Level- Depot, performs maintenance that cannot be done at the O or I level.
  53. What are the two types of maintenance?
    • Rework- restorative or additive work
    • Upkeep- preventative, restorative, or additive work
  54. Describe the different types of inspections
    • Turnaround- conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight
    • Daily- conducted to inspect for defects at a greater detail than the turnaround, good for 72 hours or 24 hours if flown
    • Special- scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase
    • Conditional- unscheduled inspections required as a result of a specific overlimit condition
    • Phase- divides total maintenance requirements into smaller packages, or phases
    • Acceptance-conducted when a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment is accepted
    • Transfer- conducted when aircraft or support equipment is transferred
  55. What is the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan?
    To provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload.
  56. What is the purpose of Quality Assurance?
    To prevent the occurence of defects.
  57. What programs does QA manage?
    • -Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)
    • -Safety, responsible for the overall safety program of the maintenance program
    • -QA audit program
    • -SE misuse/abuse
    • -Aircraft Confined Space Program
    • -Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
  58. What does NATOPS stand for?
    Naval Aviation Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
  59. What is the purpose of NATOPS?
    NATOPS is a manual designed to standardize procedures for operating aircraft.
  60. List the terms and phrases defined in the NATOPS.
    • Warning- an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
    • Caution- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed
    • Note- An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that must be emphasized
    • Shall- a procedure that is mandatory
    • Should- means a procedure that is reccomended
    • May- a procedure that is optional
    • Will- indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure
  61. When was the NATOPS established?
  62. When did the first take off from a ship take place?
    Eugene Ely, took off in a 50 hp curtiss plane on the bow of the USS Birmingham.
  63. What is significant about May 8th, 1911?
    It is the birthday of naval aviation. It was the day that the NAVY bought its first airplane, the A1 triad, for $5,500 each.
  64. On what day was the first fatality in naval aviation?
    June 20th, 1913. William D Billingsley was thrown from his plane.
  65. What is significant about October 22nd, 1917?
    On this day the quality assurance program was enstated.
  66. What was the name of the first aircraft carrier?
    The USS Langley (CV-1), commissioned on March 20th, 1922.
  67. What is the name of the first NAVY jet aircraft?
    The FJ-1 Fury, it made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer.
  68. What is the significance of the battle of Coral Sea, and what date did it occur?
    • Thanks to the breaking of the japanese naval code, we were able to stop the japanese from invading Australia. It was the world's first carrier to carrier battle.
    • 3rd to the 5th of June, 1942.
  69. What is the significance of the battle of Midway, and what date did it occur?
    • It was the turning point of the Pacific war. 3 Japanese carriers were sunk and in a single day the Japanese lost their bid for the Pacific.
    • June 3rd through the 5th 1942
  70. What is the significance of the battle of Guadalcanal, and what date did it occur?
    • The USS Juneau was sunk and the five Sullivan brothers along with 700 others were lost.
    • 13th through the 15th November 1942.
  71. Define Acceleration.
    The rate of change of the speed and or velocity with time.
  72. Define Speed.
    The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time.
  73. Define Velocity.
    The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
  74. What is Newton's first law of motion?
    An object at rest or in motion will stay at rest or in motion at the same speed and direction until acted upon by an outside force. (inertia)
  75. What is Newton's second law of motion?
    When an object is acted upon by an external force, the change in motion will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass.
  76. What is Newton's third law of motion?
    For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  77. What is Bernoulli's principle and how does it apply to flight?
    When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing, speed is increased and pressure is decreased. Lift is accomplished because of the difference in airflow across the airfoil.
  78. What is lift?
    Lift is the force that acts in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air.
  79. What is weight?
    The downward force of gravity on the aircraft.
  80. What is drag?
    Drag is the force that resists forward motion and holds the aircraft back, caused by the disruption of air about the wings and fuselage.
  81. What is Thrust?
    The force developed by the engines that acts in a forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to drag for flight to be sustained.
  82. What flight controls are on an aircraft?
    • -Ailerons (roll), longitudinal axis
    • -Elevators (pitch), lateral axis
    • -Rudder (yaw), vertical axis
    • -Flap (leading/trailing edge), creates extra lift
    • -Spoiler, used to decrease or spoil wing lift to create a more predictable landing glideslope.
    • -Speed brakes, used to reduce the speed of the aircraft
    • -Slats, moveable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing that improve the lateral control handling characteristics
  83. What flight controls are on a rotary aircraft and what axis do they control?
    • -Cyclic stick (roll/pitch), tilts the angle of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways.
    • -Tail rotor (yaw), this component counteracts the torque of the main rotor.
  84. Define the angle of attack.
    The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets the flow of air.
  85. What are the components of a basic hydraulic system?
    • -Reservoir
    • -Pump
    • -Tubing
    • -Selector valve
    • -Actuating unit
  86. What are the main components of the landing gear?
    • -Shock strut assembly
    • -Tires
    • -Wheel brake assembly
    • -Retracting and extending mechanism
    • -Side struts and supports
  87. What does NALCOMIS stand for and what is it's purpose?
    Naval Aviation Logistics Command Information System. It is used to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information.
  88. What does OOMA and OIMA stand for?
    Optimized Organizational/Intermediate Maintenance Activity.
  89. What are some common types of work orders?
    • -DM, discrepancy maintenance
    • -TS, troubleshooting
    • -CM, cannibalization maintenance
    • -AD, assist maintenance
    • -FO, facilitate other maintenance
    • -CL, conditional look phase
    • -CF, conditional fix phase
    • -SX, special inspection one workcenter
    • -SC, special inspection control
    • -TD, Technical Directive
  90. What six core capabilities does the NAVY address?
    • -Forward presence
    • -deterrence
    • -Sea Control
    • -Power Projection
    • -Maritime Security
    • -Humanitarian Assisstance/Disaster relief
  91. What is a HSC squadron?
    Helicopter Sea Combat: Rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, combat search and rescue
  92. What is a HSM squadron?
    Helicopter Maritime Strike: Anti-sub and anti-surface warfare
  93. What is a HT squadron?
    Helicopter Training
  94. What is a VAQ squadron?
    Tactical electronic warfare- fixed wing squadrons that tactically support air and fleet operations
  95. What is a VAW squadron?
    Carrier airborne early warning- fixed wing carrier squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft.
  96. What is a VC squadron?
    Fleet Composite-utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet
  97. What is a VFA squadron?
    Strike fighter
  98. What is a VP squadron?
    Patrol: anit-sub, anti-surface, reconnnaissance and mining
  99. What is a VQ squadron?
    Fleet air reconnaissance: electronic warfare support. ABNCP for select squadrons
  100. What is a VR squadron?
    Aircaft logistics support: transport personnel and supplies
  101. What is a VRC squadron?
    Carrier logistics support- transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery
  102. What is a VT squadron?
    Training: provides training for fixed wing aircraft
  103. What is a (VX/VXE) squadron?
    Air test and evaluation: test squadrons
  104. Define HAZMAT.
    Any material that, because of it's quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment.
  105. What are the MSDS?
    Material Safety Data Sheets- they contain the necessary information for the handling of all hazmat dealt with on a daily basis.
  106. What are the six categories of HAZMAT?
    • -Flammable
    • -Aerosol
    • -Toxic
    • -Corrosive
    • -Oxidizing
    • -Compressed gases
  107. Where can you find the proper PPE and disposal requirements for specific HAZMAT?
    The MSDS will have all information regarding what PPE is required and how to dispose of HAZMAT.
  108. What are the steps required for a HAZMAT spill?
    • -Discovery
    • -Notification
    • -Indication of action
    • -Evaluation
    • -Containment
    • -Damage control
    • -Dispersion of gases/vapors
    • -Cleanup and decontamination
    • -Disposal
    • -Certification for re-entry
    • -Follow-up reports
  109. What kind of roof system do Hangars use?
    Column free front cantilevered roof structure.
  110. Describe a Type I hangar.
    Designed for use on carriers, they are 235' wide by 85' feet deep.
  111. Describe a type II hangar.
    Used for US Marine Corps aviation, it is 119' deep by 325' wide.
  112. Describe a type III hangar.
    Designed for land based large patrol aircraft, it is 165' wide by 165' deep.
  113. What important items do you need to be aware of in shore based hangars?
    • -A painted red fire lane
    • -Portable CO2 fire extinguishers
    • -Electrical system with cords
    • -Manually or automatically operated hangar doors
    • -Aircraft grounds that provide 10 OHMs or less of resistance
  114. What are the fire protection requirements for a hangar?
    • -A low level AFFF system
    • -A closed head water only overhead sprinkler system
    • -Optical detection system to activate AFFF
    • -Appropriate drainage systems
    • -Draft curtains to prevent cooling of the sprinkler heads
  115. Describe an aircraft carrier hangar.
    They are 110' wide and 685' long with 25' of overhead clearance. The hangar bay doors can be closed in approximately 18 seconds. Hangar bay 1 and 2 have aircraft elevators on the starboard side and bay three has elevators on both sides.
  116. What are the dangers associated with opening the tail compartment?
    The STWA and PA coaxial tubes are pressurized with sulfur hexafluoride gas which is 4 times heavier than air. The compartment must be allowed to vent at least 15 minutes prior to entering.
  117. What precautions must be taken when wind speeds exceed 65 knots?
    The aircraft must be positioned into the wind.
  118. What fuselage compartments are pressurized during flight?
    The main cabin, flight deck, forward and aft lower lobe, and the lower nose section.
  119. What flight controls are on the E-6B and what axis do they control?
    • Aileron- provides lateral control about the roll axis
    • Spoiler and speed brake system-used to decrease lift and create drag
    • Flap system- designed to create high lift upon takeoff
    • Stabilizer control system-provides longitudinal trim about the pitch axis by the horizontal stabilizer
    • Rudder- Directional yaw control about the vertical axis
    • Elevator control system- two elevators that operate independently to provide pitch control
    • Vortex generators- improve the aerodynamic performance
  120. What are the engine danger areas at idle?
    25 feet in front of the engine, 5 feet behind the inlet, and 200 feet behind the engine at a 20 degree arc.
  121. What are the engine danger areas at takeoff thrust?
    50 feet in front of the engine, 6 feet behind the inlet, and 500 feet behind the engine within a 30 degree arc.
  122. What are the danger areas for the APU?
    25 feet at a 20 degree arc.
  123. What does APU stand for?
    Auxiliary Power Unit
  124. What engine does the E-6B use?
    The CFM56-2A-2 high bypass ratio turbofan engine.
  125. What are the four main components of the E-6B engine?
    • Fan
    • Core
    • Low pressure turbine
    • Accessory drive
  126. How many fuel tanks does the E-6B have?
    Seven fuel tanks, 4 main tanks, 2 reserves, and a center tank.
  127. What is the purpose of the bleed air system?
    To provide pressurized air for the environmental systems and engine start.
  128. Where does the APU get its fuel from?
    It is gravity fed from fuel tank 3.
  129. What are hydraulic accumulators charged with?
    They are precharged with nitrogen.
  130. What are the dangers associated with hydraulic fluid?
    Disconnecting of hydraulic lines will cause misting of hyd fluid causing an inhalation hazard. 3,000 psi of hydraulic pressure is enough to penetrate the skin.
  131. What are the five basic hydraulic components?
    • Hydraulic reservoir
    • Hydraulic pump
    • Check Valve
    • Hydraulic Lines
    • Actuator
  132. What are the hydraulic pumps on the E-6B capable of pumping?
    26GPM and 3,000 psi at takeoff, with 23 GPM and 2,850 psi at cruise RPM.
  133. What are the thrust capabilities of the E-6B engines?
    24,000 pounds maximum sustained with 23,500 unsustained.
  134. What does the utility system give pressure to?
    • Air refueling receiver system(alternate)
    • Landing Gear
    • Brakes
    • Leading edge flaps
    • Trailing edge flaps
    • Outboard spoilers
    • Nose Gear Steering
    • Thrust reversers
  135. What does the auxiliary system give pressure to?
    • Air refueling system (primary)
    • APU start system
    • Inboard spoiler system
    • Rudder power control system
  136. Where are the hydraulic system reservoirs located and how much do they hold?
    They are in each wing fillet and they hold 1.25 gallons.
  137. What is the function of a hydraulic accumulator?
    They act as a surge dampener as well as a storage system for hydraulic pressure.
  138. What acuumulators are used on the E-6B?
    • Auxiliary accumulators
    • Brake Accumulator
    • APU start accumulator
    • Aerial refuleing accumulator
    • Thrust reverser accumulator
  139. What are some of the cautions to be observed when dealing with electrical systems?
    • Keep away from live circuits
    • Turn off system power before making/breaking electrical connections
    • Ground all equipment
    • Do not wear jewelery
  140. What are the external power requirements of the E-6B?
    120/208 Volt, three phase, 400Hz. The maximum allowable current is 365 +/- 35 Amps.
  141. What is an IDG?
    Integrated Drive Generator
  142. How many IDGs are there and what kind of power do they supply?
    There are 8, 2 on each engine. They supply 115V, 400Hz at 12,000 RPM.
  143. How are the generators divided among the buses?
    • 1, 3, and 5 power the AVE sync bus
    • 2, 4, 6, and 8 power the ME bus.
  144. What does AVE and ME stand for?
    • Air Vehicle Equipment
    • Mission Equipment
  145. How many times can a circuit breaker be reset?
    Only once, due to a fire hazard.
  146. What functions does the Generator control unit provide?
    • Automatic voltage regulation
    • Reactive load division
    • Fault current limiting and power limiting
    • Fault protection
    • Bus tie breaker
    • Generator circuit breaker
    • Generator control
  147. What is the purpose of the Frequency Load Control Unit?
    The FLCU provides speed trim signals for controlling real load in each generator.
  148. What is the purpose of the Frequency Reference Auto-Paralleling Unit?
    The FRAPU provides precise frequency control
  149. What is the purpose of the Bus Power Control Unit?
    The BPCU is used to control and protect the synchronous bus.
  150. How many batteries are located in the forward lower lobe?
    Four batteries (M5, M6, M686, and M689)
  151. What is thermal runaway?
    Thermal runaway is a condition in which the current for a fully charged nickel-cadmium battery rises out of proportion to the impressed voltage.
  152. What is a hardness critical item/process?
    Hardness critical is applied to components and mission systems whose sensitivity to electromagnetic energy can affect nuclear survivability
  153. What are the HF radio hazard areas?
    10 feet for personnel, 150 feet for electroexplosives, 200 feet for fuel.
  154. What are the UHF satcom and UHF C3 hazard areas
    1 foot for personnel when HPA is off, 17 feet for personnel with HPA on.
  155. What are the MILSTAR hazard areas?
    Inside the main beam: 322 feet for personnel, 360 feet for electroexplosives, 10 feet for fuel. Outside the main beam: 19 feet for personnel, 21 feet for electroexplosives, and 6 feet for fuel.
  156. What is the purpose of the long trailing wire?
    The long trailing wire acts as a ground for the short trailing wire antenna.
  157. What is the purpose of the short trailing wire?
    The short trailing wire acts as an antenna. It operates over a frequency range of 17 to 60Khz.
  158. What is the purpose of the SSPA?
    The Solid State Power Amplifier/Coupler provides amplification of internally and externally generated signals. It has the capability to amplify power to 200Kw.
  159. What does MILSTAR stand for?
    Military Strategic Tactical Relay
  160. What does ALCS stand for and what is its purpose?
    Airborne launch control system, it provides nuclear launch capabilities to the E-6B.
  161. What systems does ALCS combine with to communicate?
    ALCS interfaces with the C3 radio system through the DAISS system.
  162. What is the purpose of the MCS system?
    The MCS system is used to translate written messages into digital signals that can be transmitted.
  163. What does DAISS stand for?
    Digital Airborne Intercommunications and Switching Set.
  164. What is the purpose of DAISS?
    DAISS provides an interface with communication equipment for onboard air to air and air to ground communications.
  165. How many HF radios are on the E-6B?
    There are 5 HF radios. No. 1 is used for the flight crew, 2 thru 5 are used for the mission. No 2 is a receive only radio.
  166. What are the hazard areas associated with Weather Radar?
    60 feet for personnel, 100 feet for electroexplosives, and 300 feet for fuel. all at a 270 degree arc.
  167. What components make up the environmental control system?
    Bleed air, air conditioning, and pressurization systems.
  168. How often does the air conditioning system cycle the air?
    The air is cycled completely every five to six minutes?
  169. What survival equipment is the E-6B equipped with?
    • Life vests(23)
    • Life rafts(3)
    • Crash axe(5)
    • MA-1 Portable oxygen(12)
    • MB-1 portable oxygen(6)
    • First aid Kits(7)
    • Fire extinguishers(8)
    • Anti-exposure suits(23)
    • Emergency exit lights(8)
    • O2 Smoke masks(30)
    • O2 Quick don masks(5)
    • AN/PRC-149 emergency radio(3)
    • portable emergency exit lights(8)
  170. How many fire bottles are on the E-6B?
    There are 5, two on engine struts #2 and #3 as well as one behind the APU.
  171. Who makes up the crew of the E-6B?
    • Mission Commander
    • Aircraft Commander
    • Copilot
    • Off duty Pilot
    • Flight Engineer
    • Second Flight Engineer
    • Combat Systems Officer
    • Airborne Communications Officer
    • Communications Watch Officer
    • Airborne Communicator
    • In-Flight Technician
    • Second Flight Technician
    • Reel Operator
  172. What does TACAMO stand for?
    Take Charge and Move Out
  173. What does ABNCP stand for?
    Airborne Command Post
  174. What does ALCS stand for?
    Airborne Launch Control System
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EAWS study questions