Biochem Test 3 (11-16)

  1. 1) Fatty acid groups are referred to as ________ groups.





    C)
  2. 2) The double bonds in naturally occurring fatty acids are usually _______ isomers.





    A)
  3. 3) The essential fatty acids are





    E)
  4. 4) Fatty acids react with alcohols to form _____.





    D)
  5. 5) Prostaglandins are involved in _________.





    E)
  6. 6) The functions of fat include





    E)
  7. 7) Waxes





    E)
  8. 8) Phospholipids are





    D)
  9. 9) Phosphatidylcholine is sometimes referred to as ______.





    E)
  10. 10) The myelin sheath 





    E)
  11. 11) All of the following are glycolipids except _________.





    E)
  12. 12) The role of very low density lipoproteins is





    B)
  13. 13) Which of the following statements concerning carotenoids is not true?





    A)
  14. 14) Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?





    E)
  15. 15) The basic structure of biological membranes is a consequence of the physical properties of  _______.





    B)
  16. 16) A membrane’s fluidity is largely determined by the percentage of 





    D)
  17. 17) In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure





    C)
  18. 18) Which of the following statements concerning the anion channel protein is not true?





    D)
  19. 19) Energy requiring transport mechanisms include





    A)
  20. 20) In simple diffusion a solute





    A)
  21. 21) Which of the following statements is not true?





    D)
  22. 22) In muscle cells, local depolarization caused by acetylcholine binding leads to the opening of the voltage gated _____channels.





    A)
  23. 23) The function of glucose permease is an example of 





    B)
  24. 24) ω-6 Fatty acids





    C)
  25. 25) Membrane receptors are transmembrane molecules or molecular complexes that 





    E)
  26. 26) Patients with familial hypercholesterolemia





    A)
  27. 27) Indicate which of the following compounds is a endocannabinoid.





    A)
  28. 28) Low fat diets deficient in essential fatty acids are characterized by which of the following?

    A)  Poor wound healing
    B)  Alopecia
    C)  Dental caries
    D Ketone bodies
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  29. 29) Which of the following structural features is not characteristic of TXA2 ?





    E)
  30. 30) Neutral fats belong to which of the following?





    B)
  31. In addition to the prostaglandins and leukotrienes the autocrine regulators include:



    Arachidonic acid
    Linoleic acid
    Thromboxanes
    Steroids
    All of the above are correct
    C
  32. Choose the lipid class that acts as  surfactants.



    Triacylglycerols
    Fatty acids
    Waxes
    Phospholipids
    Both A and B are correct
    D
  33. Membrane proteins are linked to anchor molecules through a ___________ link



    Ether
    Ester
    Amide
    Amino
    Plasma
    C
  34. Glycolipids differ from sphingolipids in that they contain no _________.



    Carbohydrate
    Phosphate
    Fatty acid
    Choline
    Both B and C are correct
    B
  35. Which of the following is not likely to be a naturally occurring fatty acid



    C13H27COOH
    C14H29COOH
    C15H31COOH
    C17H35COOH
    C19H39COOH
    B
  36. How many isoprene units does a diterpene contain?



    1
    2
    3
    4
    5
    D
  37. The function of dolichols is to 



    Transport sugars in glycoprotein synthesis
    Bind carbohydrate on the cell surface of bacteria
    Bind to  oxygenated carotenes
    Serve as  precursors of carotenoids
    They are degradation products of steroids
    A
  38. Plasma lipoproteins transport _______ through the blood from one organ to another.



    Triacylglycerols
    Phospholipids
    Cholesteryl esters
    Both A and C are correct
    All of the above are correct
    E
  39. _________ are the principal transporters of cholesteryl esters to tissues.



    Chylomicrons
    Very low density lipoprotein
    Intermediate density lipoprotein
    Low density lipoprotein
    All of the above are true
    D
  40. Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a defective _______ ion channel in their epithelial membrane



    Water
    Chloride
    Potassium
    Protein
    Sodium
    B
  41. A consequence of replacing dietary fat content with sugars is



    No effect on body weight
    An increase in body weight
    A small loss of body weight
    A large decrease in body weight
    An initial loss of weight followed by a large increase in body weight
    B
  42. Which of the following is not a consequence of a low fat diet?



    Low levels of fat soluble vitamins
    Low levels of essential fatty acids
    Brittle hair
    Poor would healing
    Low blood pressure
    E
  43. 43) Phospholipase B hydrolyzes ______ ester bonds in phospholipids


    C-1
    C-2
    C-3
    Both C-1 and C-2
    All of the above
    D
  44. 44)  Which of the following is not a function of phospholipases?


    Membrane remodeling
    Signal transduction
    Energy storage
    Digestion
    Toxic Phospholipases
    C
  45. 45)  Membranes are rigid when they contain


    Large amounts of cholesterol
    Large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids
    Large amounts of saturated fatty acids
    Large amounts of water
    A and B
    C
  46. 46)  Flippase transfers _________ from the outer to inner membrane leaflet


    Phospholipids
    Cholesterol
    Triacylglycerols
    Glycolipids
    Water
    A
  47. 1. How many acetyl-CoA’s are required to synthesize one molecule of isopentenyl pyrophosphate
    3
  48. 2. ______ is used to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria.
    B-Oxidation and carnitine carrier system
  49. 3)  The b-oxidation of fatty acids requires_________.
    Acyl-CoA, FAD, NAD+, and CoASH
  50. 4. ________, a product of the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids, is converted to  succinyl-CoA.
    Propionyl-CoA
  51. 5)   __________ derive a substantial amount of energy from the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids.
    Ruminant animals (cattle and sheep)
  52. 6) The carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from _____
    Acetyl CoA
  53. 7) The following reaction requires the presence of beta-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
    NAD+.
    NAD+
  54. 8) In animals the function of peroxisomal b-oxidation appears to be
    OX of odd chain fatty acids
  55. 9) The acetyl-CoA derived from glyoxysomal b-oxidation is converted to carbohydrate via the
    citric acid cycle, CO2, NADH, H2O, FADH2, glyoxylate cycle and gluconeogenesis
  56. 10. Refsum’s disease results from a buildup of _________ in nerve tissue.
    phytanic acid
  57. 11) Which of the following is not one of the ketone bodies?
    • B-methyl- glutate
    • Ketone bodies INCLUDE: Excess Acetyl CoA, Acetone, Acetoacetate and Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
  58. 12. Most eicosanoids are derived from either _________.
    arachidonic acid
  59. 13) Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is transported by the blood to the
    Liver
  60. 14) The intermediates in fatty acid synthesis are linked through a ______ linkage to ACP.
    thioester
  61. 15)  Saturated fatty acids containing up to 16 carbon atoms are assembled in
    cytoplasm
  62. 16) Fatty acid synthesis begins with the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form
    malonyl COA.
  63. 17) All of the following are enzymatic activities found in fatty acid synthase except
    liboxygenase
  64. 18)  Desaturation of fatty acids involves all of the following except
    •      Desaturation is important in the regulation of membrane fluidity(done in
    •      ER) and the synthesis of the precursors for a variety of fatty acid
    •      derivatives such as the eicosanoids.
    •      The system efficiently introduces double bonds (desaturation) into
    •      long-chain fatty acids
    •      Mediated by an electron transport system
    • (The answer will be none of the above)
    • INVOLVES: Cytochrome b5 reductase, cytochrome b5 and desaturase, NADH, O2
  65. 19)   Which of the following types of fatty acid oxidation produces a dicarboxylic
    acid?
    alpha oxidation
  66. 20)  The conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA is inhibited by
    glucagon, epinephrine, paltimitoyl coa
  67. 21) The conversion of acyl-CoA to acylcarnitine is inhibited by
    malonyl COA.
  68. 22) In conjugation reactions
    • This reaction improve the water solubility of a molecule by converting it to a derivatives (Amid and Esters) that contains a water-soluble group.
    • Most bile acids are conjugated with glycine
  69. 23) Depending on an animal’s metabolic needs, fatty acids may be converted to triacylglycerols, energy or
    membrane synthesis.
  70. 24) Membrane remodeling
    Cells use phospholipases to alter the flexibility of membranes by adjusting the ratio of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids or to replace a damaged fatty acid. Fatty acid removal from a phospholipid is followed by a reacylation reaction catalyzed by an acyltransferase.
  71. 25) The conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylcholine requires
    SAM

    enzyme phosphotidylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.
  72. 26) The sulfatides are synthesized when galactocerebriose  reacts with
    3-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate.
    Galactocerebroside
  73. 27) __________ is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.
    HMG-CoA reductase (HMGR)
  74. 28) The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires
    sterol carrier protein because the conversion of squalene to lanosterol occurs while the intermediates are bound to this protein.


    The answer is NADPH
  75. 29) Cholesterol is a precursor of synthesis of important metabolites used to
    form bile salt, bile salts, steroid hormones nascent lipoproteins.
  76. 30) Most bile acids are conjugated with
    glycine or taurine.
  77. 31) Which of the following tissues cannot use fatty acids as a fuel?
    Brain cells and RBC cannot use fatty acids as fuels.
  78. 32) Lipolysis is used to:
    • Lipolysis is the enzyme-catalyzed hydrolysis of triacylglycerol molecules.
    • When energy reserves are low, the body’s fat stores are mobilized in this process. It usually occurs during fasting or vigorous exercise and stress








    form fatty acids and glycerol from degradation of triacylglycerols when energy reserves are low.
  79. Oxidation of the carbon farthest from the carbonyl group of a fatty acid is called
    omega oxidation
  80. 34) In the process of thiolytic cleavage  the following occurs:
    • an acetyl-CoA molecule is released
    • The other product, acyl-CoA, contains two fewer C atoms
  81. 35) How many FADH2 molecules would be produced in the oxidation of palmitic acid?
    7
  82. 36) The rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is
    acetyl COA Carboxylation
  83. 37)  Which of the following lipids have signaling functions?
    Steroid hormones and prostaglandins.
  84. 38) What form of oxidation is characteristic of branched chain fatty acids
    alpha oxidation
  85. 39) The metabolism of fatty acids is regulated in the short term by allosteric modulators, covalent modification and
    hormones
  86. 40) The most important mechanism for degrading and eliminating cholesterol is the synthesis of
    bile acids in the ER of liver cells.
  87. 41)   The absorption of triglycerides and other lipid nutrients and their distribution to body tissues is referred to as the
    exogenous pathway
  88. 42)  The pathway in which lipoproteins are transported from the liver to cells is referred to
    endogenous pathway
  89. 43)  Which of the following is not a function of lipids:
    Function of lipids : vital energy reserves, primary structural components of biological membranes, act as hormones, antioxidants, pigments, or vital growth factors and vitamins


    • Highly efficient and compact energy storage molecules
    • Essential components of biological membranes (phospholipids, cholesterol, sphingolipids)
    • Diverse membrane-associated molecules that have signaling or protective functions
  90. The triacylglycerol cycle is :
    A mechanism that regulates the level of fatty acid that are available to the body for the energy generation and synthesis of molecules such as phospholipids.
  91. 45) The principal means of producing glycerol in the body
    glyceroneogensis
  92. 46) The recycling rate of triacylglycerols to fatty acids  is inhibited by
    insulin
  93. 1) The glutamate family of amino acids includes all of the following except _____.




    C.
  94. 2)  Which of the following is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter?




    D.
  95. 3) All of the following are referred to collectively as the branched chain amino acids except _________




    E.
  96. 4) Which of the following is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
    • GABA is most prevalent inhibitory
    • Glycine
  97. Glycine is used as a precursor molecule in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
    Glycine is used in the purine, porphyrin, and glutathione synthetic pathways
  98. 6) In plants fixed nitrogen is assimilated into __________.
    the amide group of glutamate
  99. 7) a-Ketoisovalerate is an intermediate formed during the synthesis of _________.
    valine and leucine
  100. 8) The group of molecules called the catecholamines include all of the following except
    The most abundant ones ARE: Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine.
  101. 9) Tryptophan is a precursor in the synthesis of _________.
    • Serotonin
    • Niacin
    • auxin
    • β-carboline norharman
  102. 10) Chorismate is a precursor in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
    tryptophan, tyrosine, phenylalanine. also: prephenate
  103. 11) Molecules involved in histidine synthesis include ________.
    phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP), ATP, and glutamine
  104. folic acid
    A vitamin of the B complex, found esp. in leafy green vegetables, liver, and kidney. A deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia
  105. 13) SAM is a methyl donor in the synthesis of ______.
    115 transmethylation reactions some which which occur in the synthesis of phospholipids,several neurotransmitters, and glutathione.
  106. 14) Amethopterin is a structural analogue of _________.
    Folate
  107. GSH is? Important why?
    It is an antioxidant, preventing damage to important cellular components caused by reactive oxygen species such as free radicals and peroxides. May reduce cancer development
  108. 16) All of the following are purine bases except _____.
    purine bases include: adenine, guanine, xanthine, and hypoxanthine.
  109. 17) Deficiency of _____________ causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    Hypozanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
  110. 18) All of the following are directly involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid....
  111. 19)  Inorganic nitrogen is initially assimilated into which of the following amino acids
    glutamine, glutamate, asparagine, and aspartate
  112. 20) The amino acids serine and _______ are preferentially used to synthesize  glucose for export from the liver
  113. 21) Nitrogen fixation requires iron and ________ as cofactors.
  114. 22) One-carbon carriers in metabolism include
    SAM and tetrahydrofolate THF (folic acid)
  115. 23) Which of the following is an a-keto acid/a-amino acid pair used in transamination?
    a-ketoglutarate/glutamate, oxaloacetate/ aspartate, pyruvate/ alanine
  116. 24) In plants the pathway by which most ammonium ion is incorporated into organic molecules requires
  117. 25) Asparagine is formed from aspartic acid and ______.
    glutamine.
  118. 26) The benzene ring of the aromatic amino acids is formed by the
    shikimate pathway
  119. 27) The oxidation state of the methenyl group (-CH=) is comparable to that of ____.
    formyl (-CHO)
  120. 28) The methylated product of _______ is creatine.
    L-arginine, glycine, and L-methionine
  121. 29) The fixation of nitrogen requires
    Anaerobic Conditions
  122. 30) Most aminotransferaes utilize ________as the recipient a-keto acid.
    a-ketoglutarate
  123. 31) The primary energy source for enterocytes is:
    short-chain fatty acids
  124. _______ ATP molecules are required to convert one mole of nitrogen to two ammonia molecules.
    16
  125. 33) The first step in nitrogen fixation is  ___
    reduction of atmospheric nitrogen by nitrogen-fixing bacteria to yield ammonia NH3 or NH4
  126. 34) The major form of regulation of nitrogen fixation is _______.
    transcriptional control of approximately 20 nitrogen fixation genes
  127. 35) The first amino acid containing newly fixed nitrogen is _______.
    glutamate
  128. 36) Which of the following is not a gasotransmitter?
    examples of gasotransmitters are: nitric oxide, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, and nitrous oxide
  129. 37)  Which of the following compounds is not present in the normal process of nitrogen fixation
  130. 38) Hydrogen sulfide is produced from
    cysteine by several enzymes [pyridoxal phosphate requiring enzymes cystathione beta-synthetase (CBS) and CSE]
  131. 39) The six families of amino acids are glutamate, aromatic, serine, aspartate, pyruvate and _______.
    histidine
  132. 40) Which of the following neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids?
    GABA, catecholamines, serotonin, and histamine
  133. 41) In ocean water phytoplankton growth is limited  by temperature and low levels of nutrients containing
    nitrogen (and phosphorous)
  134. 42) Hypoxic water is characterized by
     low oxygen conditions
  135. 43) The ultimate products of mineralization of organic nitrogen is
    NH3, NO3-, NO2- (nitrite), and eventually N2
  136. 44)  The most common intracellular reducing agent is
    glutathione
  137. 45) In nitrogen fixation by microorganisms what gas other than ammonia is produced?
    hydrogen gas
  138. 46) Which of the following is not a function of glutathione
     Glutathione is an antioxidant - protects the body against oxidative stress, radiation, uv light, etc.
  139. 1) In addition to urea humans also excrete waste nitrogen as
    Uric Acid
  140. 2) Stress proteins
    are referred to as heat shock proteins
  141. 3) The ammonia that is incorporated into urea molecules is produced in reactions catalyzed by all of the following enzymes except
    L-amino acid oxidases, Serine and threonine dehydrases, Bacterial ureases (intestinal bacteria), and Adenosine deaminase produce NH4
  142. 4) N-Acetylglutamate is
    produced from glutamate and acetyl-CoA, and stimulates the activity of carbonyl synthetase 1
  143. 5) Amino acids whose degradation yields acetyl-CoA include all of the following except
    glutamate
  144. 6) Homogentisate is an intermediate in the degradation of
    tyrosine
  145. 7) a-Ketoadipate is an intermediate in the degradation of
    lysine.
  146. 8) In addition to phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine requires
    O2, BH4, NADPH
  147. 9) Amino acids whose degradation yields a-ketoglutarate include all of the following except _________.
    Arginine, Histidine, Glutamate, Glutamine, and Proline degrade to alpha-ketoglutarate.
  148. 10) Glutamate-g-semialdehyde is an intermediate in the degradation of
    proline
  149. 11)  Amino acids whose degradation yields succinyl-CoA includes all of the following except ________.
    Methionine, Isoleucine, Threonine, and Valine are converted to succinyl-coa
  150. 2) Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency of :
    homogentisate oxidase, an enzyme required for the catabolism of aromatic ring of phenylalanine and tyrosine.
  151. 13) Albinism is caused by the absence of:
    pigment (lack of melanin)
  152. 14) The major route for protein degradation is
    Ubiquitin Proteosomal System (UPS)
  153. 15) Which of the following reactions require SAM?
    Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
  154. 16) The production of antibodies
    occurs in the B cells and is referred to as the humoral immunity response
  155. 17) Which of the following is not a characteristic N-terminal amio acid residue of long-lived proteins
  156. 18)  Covalently bound chains with _____ or more ubiquitin monomers are required to transfer a protein to the proteosome.
    4
  157. 19) Which of the following amino acids reacts with HOCl to form a nontoxic product during respiratory bursts?
    Taurine
  158. 20) The end product of uracil degradation is
    b-alanine
  159. 21) The end product of thymine degradation is
    b-aminoisobutyrate.
  160. 22) Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of
    uracil to dihydrouracil and thymine to dihydrothymine
  161. 23) The glucogenic amino acids include all of the following except ______.
    All amino acids except Lysine, and Leucine
  162. 24) Components of the transulfuration pathway include all of the  following except _____.
  163. 25)  In adenosine deaminase deficiency large concentrations of dATP result in the inhibition of
    ribonucleotide reductase.
  164. 26) Which of the following tissues can only replenish citric acid cycle intermediates by the purine nucleotide cycle?
  165. 27) All of the following are directly involved in protein turnover except _______.
    • lysosomal proteases--> endocytosed proteins
    • cytoplasmic complexes (proteasomes)
  166. Propionyl-CoA and L-methylmalonyl-CoA are intermediates in the conversion of ______ and _____ to succinyl-CoA
    isoleucine and valine
  167. 29) The end products of the transulfuration pathway are sulfate and
    pyruvate
  168. 30) Methylmalonic acidemia results from a deficiency of
    Vitamin B12
  169. 31) The main nitrogen storage molecule in animals is
    Ammonia
  170. 32) Decomposers convert organic nitrogen to
    ammonia
  171. 33) In general, catabolism of amino acids begins with
    removal of the amino group
  172. 34) In muscle excess amino groups are transferred to _________ to produce glutamate
    alpha-ketoglutarate
  173. 35) Ammonia is transferred to the liver as
    glutamine
  174. 36) Urea is synthesized in which organ?
    Liver (specifically hepatocytes)
  175. 37) In patients with alkaptonuria the urine is colored
    black
  176. 38) High phenylalanine blood levels from phenylketonuria results in damage to which  organ?
    The brain
  177. 39) Which of the following conditions result in a buildup of a-ketoacids derived from branced chain amino acids?
    Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  178. 40) A buildup of uric acid is characteristic of which of the following diseases?
    Branched chain ketoaciduria
  179. 41) Autophagy is
    the basic catabolic mechanism that involves cell degradation of unnecessary or dysfunctional cellular components through the lysosomal machinery
  180. 42) Phagocytosis is
    • the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes and ameboid protozoans
    • ingestion by local folding of cell membrane
  181. 43) Proteosomal digestion of what type of protein does not require ubiquination
  182. 44) Autophagy is triggered by
    Starvation (lack of any type of essential nutrient)
  183. 45) The ultimate products of autophagy include
    Amino Acids
  184. 46) The major catabolic mechanism used by eukaryotic cells to maintain optimal function and respond to changing environmental conditions is
    ubiquitin-proteasome pathway
Author
Dorky48
ID
212259
Card Set
Biochem Test 3 (11-16)
Description
Rutgers intro to biochem with Murphy test 3 chapters 11-16
Updated